A Hoped Logically Consistent View of Deification

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It is so good to read something from you once again. It has been months, if not a year or more, since we crossed paths. While I always like reading what you say, I am disappointed to find you citing lack of issues as a reason to favor Mormonism. While I am sure that that is not your foremost reason for following Mormonism – you do it because you believe in it – I can’t imagine why the relative scarcity of issues should even make your list, since it is not a valid principle at all. A lot of atheists argue their position in the same way: it is easier to account for things if you cut God out of the picture and explain events by natural principles only. I certain areas, that is actually true: for instance, atheists have an easy time explaining why there is suffering in the world, but it doesn’t amount to a good argument for them. It is a form of Occam’s razor, which is a useful rule of thumb for detective work, but is not a logically or metaphysically valid principle.
Hello Soren, it is good to see you too. I don’t post as much as I once did. I usually go in spurts and then trail off to nothing for a while. Anyway, let me see if I can respond to what you said.

I hope my statement, “I am not a LDS because I believe there are no issues with being a LDS. I am a LDS because of the great positives within the CoJCoLDS and the scarcity of issues relative to other paths I could walk with God,” adequately placed the positives before the negative. Truth be told, I was involved in a dialogue with Stephen168 (not unlike this one) where he continued to ask me questions and didn’t elaborate upon his own beliefs. It was my position that the Catholic beliefs would be more damaged with the sword he swung at my beliefs than would my beliefs. That does not mean there are not areas were LDS have problems historically and theologically and Biblically. Too often I see polemicist (and sure I am guilty of this too) say, I reject your beliefs because of XYZ but ABC is best explained within my theology/religion/history via the following explanation. If we had some agreed upon definition of “fatal flaw” then a “fatal flaw” within one religion will make the religion necessarily false, but in the absence of such a flaw (either through no reasoned and common definition of “fatal flaw” or through non-existence of such a flaw) we will all need to embrace a religion with issues.
I am sympathetic to Atheists who have not experienced God. I still find it a bit of a stretch that they feel it is appropriate to disbelieve the witness of non-atheists who have experienced God (or even former atheists for that matter). But, since I am not one who “has not experience God” the problems with explaining away my experiences are far more difficult than any theodicy or ??? that I have seen offered up as a reason to cease to be a theist. That “tu quoque” is a logical fallacy is true, but perhaps it is the pragmatist within me that believes in the absence of a “fatal flaw” there is some value in comparing baggage. Finally, I wanted to deter the occasional poster who say, “But Joseph Smith practiced polygamy and here is ….”
cont …
 
You raise the question of whether, if the Son is consubstantial with the Father, it is possible for there to be real divinization. This is a question that pertains not just to the Trinity but also to the Incarnation. If there is any single, central theme that united all the Christological controversies of the early councils, it is precisely to correct the objection you raise here. The reason Christ must be consubstantial with the Father is so that by becoming incarnate he can bring the Father fully to us. Not the least of St. Athanasius’s criticisms of Arianism is that a Son who is separate from the Father could not provide man with as robust a salvation and exaltation as Scripture claims he did. The core metaphysical principle is nemo dat quod non habet,
that is, “no one gives what he does not have.” If Christ does not have the very substance of the Father, he cannot give it to man, for he never had it himself, and so our salvation is something less than what it claims to be.
It was last night that I told my home teaching partner that Athanasius, the hero of orthodoxy at Nicea, claimed that Christ must be God because if He was not He could not make men gods. I agree with you that this was an integral part of the Athanasian argument.
That being said, if part of being God is possessing the attributes that cannot ever in any way be communicated to man (attributes so defined as those that cannot ever in any way be communicated to man) then Christ’s divinity is a hollow victory within the Athanasian argument. While I do not maintain that the above tells the whole or even most of the story, I think it is part of the story. Clearly the early church believed that “Christ became man, to make men gods.” But if the philosophical and theological definition necessitated by Nicea and follow on councils / concepts creates an unbridgeable gulf between Christ and man (after the image of the well accepted unbridgeable gulf between God the Father and man), then we are left with a hollow deification as the price for raising Christ to fully God.
My “hoped logically consistent view of deification” from a LDS perspective is precisely an attempt to define divinity such that Christ and the Father are fully divine and yet we can become fully divine. Where I to say divinity is the state of eternally being sinless, then Christ (as could God the Father) could be divine IMO, but human deification would be impossible. Similarly if (for the Catholic) divinity was defined as existence sans begetting or proceeding, then God the Father could be divine.
I believe the Nicea and later councils and writings made is such that the exchange formula must be qualified. Keating qualifies it, Palamas qualifies it, Athanasius qualifies it, and Aquinas qualifies it (though it would take a while for me to show how Aquinas did as I am not immediately familiar with this). I do not see evidence of such qualifications (of the final state of deified man) within either the Bible or St. Irenaeus or other pre-Athanasius ECFs.
The illusion of human philosophy that obscures this fact is the notion that an individual’s existence is more complete and true in itself if it is somehow separate from God; for those who admit to this error, Christ seems to be less of an individual if he “loses” his separateness, whereas he is more personal as an individual of he is separate.
Actually, I do not think this has much to do with my motivation here. Instead, I link divinity precisely to the linkage between Father, Son, Spirit, and those who have received the adoption (you should see the strong influence of Irenaeus in this statement). I also reject the idea that we will every be divine independent of God.
You seem to acknowledge that Christ is homoousian with God the Father in a different sense than Christ is homoousian with us. That is fine, but such IMO is extra Biblical. If it empties the exchange formula (which I think is born of Biblical statements) of its content, then it is likely an unhelpful extra-Biblical addition.

I need to get to some non-Internet things. I will try to do more later (perhaps tomorrow).
Good talking to you.
Charity, TOm
 
The illusion of human philosophy that obscures this fact is the notion that an individual’s existence is more complete and true in itself if it is somehow separate from God; for those who admit to this error, Christ seems to be less of an individual if he “loses” his separateness, whereas he is more personal as an individual of he is separate.
I thought I would come back to this a little. Again my desire to “separate” God is not a product of a perceived superiority of a being who is not wholly dependent up on another being. I am trying to present a rational explanation of the content of God’s revelation to man. Be this content the Bible, the person of Christ, the larger content of LDS scriptures, or most other caches of revelation we could define. I do not see –ousia based oneness in the Bible. I do not think it well expresses the threeness present in the Bible. Instead, I think the concept of the Social Trinity is a much better way of framing what the Bible presents to us. (Interestingly enough the only cache of revelation to which I have access that IMO does not demand a robust three-ness is my personal revelations from God. I unlike Joseph Smith or St. Stephen have never experienced the two-ness of God).
I also find that the Social Trinity lends itself to a robust view of deification. Christ is the very image of God and we are to become the very image of Christ. Christ became what we are and we are to become what He is. He who was rich became poor so that we who are poor may become rich. If your theology of the Trinity requires strong qualifications of these Biblical concepts then I think your theology of the Trinity might need some reassessment.
All the other Christological errors make the same mistake at other points. Because Mormonism is subordinationist, it tends to get compared to Arianism, in spite of the obvious shortcomings of that comparison. I think there is a stronger parallel to be seen between Mormonism and Nestorianism, not because they teach the same thing, but because they have the most in common in their foundational metaphysic. Nestorius could not abide that one person was both God and man because he could not accept that the human person would still be a real man, and so he had to divide the Son into two overlapping persons, one divine and one human, in order, as he thought, to preserve the Son’s humanity.
The spiritual error that provides the underlying assumption for Nestorius’s position is the sense that God, if he comes too close to his creation, ruins creation. There must instead be some distance between us and God in order for us to fully be. I call this attitude the metaphysic of separation, and it stands among the foremost assumptions of all LDS theology. No one who accepts this idea can come to terms with Christian salvation, because unity with God, not separation from him, is the real principle that completes us as beings and as persons. This notion, which is a metaphysic of unity, is simultaneously offensive to the human ego and difficult to assimilate intellectually, but until it is understood and, more importantly, seen in the person of Christ, the fullness of salvation cannot be grasped.
Again as I read the above I was not seeing my ideas presented. As I started this thread by saying, deification is the union with God. In fact divinity is this union. I reject Nestorius and the orthodox solution of the hypostatic union. It is not that the God nature and the human nature are co-located in the singular person Christ. Instead, Christ experienced humanity through the emptying of His communed nature. He did this in a way that ultimately (at least for a few seconds on the Cross) allowed Him to experience what it was like to be a separated human (without having to actually sin and create the separation Himself). He still retained His connection with God such that He was the Christ throughout His earthly ministry, but His experience of humanity was complete as He took on our sinful and separated nature. When He picked back up His divinity He ceased to experience the separation from His Father as He had during His earthly ministry culminating in His final experience on the Cross.
IMO there is nothing illogical about God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit being eternally united as one divine community (also said as One God). God the Son emptying Himself of the fullness of this communion so that He could truly be human and truly experience our sinful separated state, and then returning. And us being invited to enter into the divine community as divine persons forever united to God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit. The separated nature and the communed nature are the difference between the human and the divine. The singularity of the communed nature is the singularity of God. The robust personness of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are the threeness of God. We will enter into the singularity while still being persons.

I think that ever since I have known you I have spoken about deification as above. I believe you have read much of Ostler and to me that is how he speaks about deification. Anyway, I did not think celebration of separateness well described what I have been trying to put forth in this thread, but perhaps I misunderstood you.
Charity, TOm
 
Here is what I said to you the last time you presented this quote.
Stephen,
I suspect you didn’t intend to misrepresent what I said, but you gave the impression you were quoting (by using the quote function) and then your summarization of my statements was IMO lacking.
I know and it was followed by:
** I tried to summarize the salient points. If there was something of significance lacking, please point it out.**
The idea that God acted in history “to make men gods” is part of Catholic theology. If it is “irrational” and rationality is important, then Catholicism does not work.

That being said, I do not see what is irrational about God desiring to make men gods. I think what is going on here is that there are underlying assumptions that are not being explored.
So, why does God desiring to make men gods lead you to the charge of “it is irrational?”
"Stephen168:
You seem to assume the meaning between Catholic and Mormons are the same. After reading the King Follet discourse, I assume they are not.
Actually, no I do not assume they are the same.
I believe the LDS view of deification I embrace is Biblical.

I believe Cardinal Schönborn was very vague in the CCC and his book From Death to Live was not a ton clearer (though it has been a very long time).
I believe Daniel Keating’s book Deification and Grace is very clear and bold. However, it ultimately through quite stilted logic IMO, backs off of the clear Biblical and ECF teaching of deification.
There are others BTW, but Keating is by far the most complete I have found.

So, I do not believe that the prevalent (though not authoritative) presentation of deification in the Catholic Church is the same as the LDS view of deification that I embrace and have regularly espoused here and elsewhere.

All that being said, I used the vague phraseology of the CCC and you called it illogical. If that phraseology results in an illogical construction, then Catholicism doesn’t work. I personally believe that phraseology can be rescued without introducing any more illogical constructs into Catholicism than already are present. I do not believe that is what Daniel Keating does in that he introduces a further bit of “stilted logic,” but such likely seems necessary to conform to the rigid ontological divide between man and God.

I doubt you and I think the KFD says the same thing BTW.

(1) Where you saying that the phraseology I used was inherently illogical? That certainly seems like that was what you were saying. (2) Do you now believe the phraseology I used was inherently illogical?
(3) What within the phraseology or whatever did you decry as inherently illogical?
(4) Assuming you accept the CCC and its phraseology, do you believe it is illogical, but must be accepted on faith OR is there something else you believe about it? (4a)Can you rescue the phraseology of the CCC from whatever illogic you see within the concept of men becoming gods?

I truly believe there is a BIG problem for Catholics when it comes to deification. I believe Catholics have so forgotten the Bible and the teachings of the ECF that they can scarcely tolerate the use of deification language. I hope you do not believe my prodding of this with you is disrespectful. As a LDS I think Catholicism FAILS mightily here and it is my intention to show that it does. I hope I do not offend you in doing so.
I would consider it sufficient if in the end you acknowledged that Catholicism in its treatment of deification introduces a paradox that cannot be reasonable solved. And then you boldly embraced the paradox upon faith. Together with this would IMO be the abandonment of the condemnation I see from you and others concerning the illogic you perceive (but which I think is not necessarily present) within my theology. Alternatively, perhaps you have a way out that Keating didn’t see or use or ??? that I can learn.
Like I said:
My claim that Mormon belief is irrational came from your explanation of God on another thread……………
You said it wasn’t exactly what you meant, so I invited you to clarify, which you declined. Instead you said Catholics believe man will become gods, too (the “tu quoque” logical fallacy). I suggested Mormons belief in ‘becoming a god” was something completely different from the Catholic belief. At that point you attacked what you thought (strawman) was a Catholic belief instead of defending the Mormon belief. (tu quoque?)** Because you chose not to defend Mormonism, I was to conclude; my summary was correct and it was irrational.**
”A Hoped Logically Consistent View of Deification”
This will be my attempt to offer what I believe about LDS deification thought and its consistency.
For that to be true you need to:
  1. Explain Mormon exaltation
  2. Defend it as logically consistent
You have not honestly done either. As you have pointed out a few times, I have not answered any of your questions. The reason for that is because you have not explained Mormon exaltation which means you could never have defended it as logically consistent. Having me answer questions is just a way for you to avoid the subject of your thread.

I think a more honest name for the thread would be “Another chance for Tom to burn a Catholic straw man”
 
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Stephen168:
For that to be true you need to:
  1. Explain Mormon exaltation
  2. Defend it as logically consistent
You have not honestly done either. As you have pointed out a few times, I have not answered any of your questions. The reason for that is because you have not explained Mormon exaltation which means you could never have defended it as logically consistent. Having me answer questions is just a way for you to avoid the subject of your thread.

I think a more honest name for the thread would be “Another chance for Tom to burn a Catholic straw man”
I am of the opinion that I have in fact “Explain{ed} Mormon exaltation,” and that I have “Defend{ed} it as logically consistent.”
When you say, “You have not honestly done either,” (bolding mine) are you suggesting that I have dishonestly done them? I have never really understood why someone would think I would claim to believe something I do not in fact believe, but if I understand you correctly then you think I have.
What can I do to help you see that I am not lying to you?

Also I think there is more about what I believe in this thread as a LDS than there is from anyone else about what they believe. I have certainly tried to address Catholic beliefs, but I assure you I try hard to not misrepresent Catholic beliefs.
How would I need to communicate to you about Catholic beliefs for you to believe that I have tried to understand them? I think this thread has demonstrated that CatholicGuyNY and Soren1 do not hold identical views. I try to deal with this, but it is not my intention to build “Catholic straw men.” If I am to not be Catholic I intend for to not be the best that is Catholicism not some simple “this Pope was a bad man,” thing.

I had hoped to respond to your criticism that Mormon’s do not defend their views and express what they believe, but I guess in your eyes I have not. I am disappointed.

Charity, TOm
 
  1. I would say modalism is the belief that God the Father and God the Son are one person and one being. They are homoousian as Paul of Somosata claimed them to be.
  2. I would say neo-modalism is the belief that God the Father and God the Son are three persons but nonetheless consubstantial/homoousian/one-in-being. It is unacceptable to say that two humans are homoousian in this way, but within God there are three persons so this is not modalism and stop saying it is. I think Athanasius, Augustine, and Aquinas all viewed Nicene orthodoxy this way.
  3. I would say that the third way of talking about this is that God the Father and God the Son are 2 persons who are one in that they are homoousian just as two humans (a human father and a human son) are homoousian. This is the way Eusebius of C expressed his acceptance of Nicea, it is the way you CatholicGuyNY accept Nicea, and it is the way I could and would (if there was some need to do so) accept Nicea.
The problem with this is that you simply aren’t defining what it means to be “one in being”/consubstantial. What does that mean? What is the word “being” talking about? Please provide quotes from the so-called “neo-modalists” in contrast to quotes from Eusebius. If you have already done so in this thread and I missed it, please direct me to the post.

I still do not see any “neo-modalism” in the claim that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are three distinct Persons that are one in being/substance/essence/etc. The reason why I don’t see what you see is that it seems as if we are using different definitions for “being”/substance/ousia. So, to simply matters, please define for us what “consubstantial”/“one in being” meant to the so-called “neo-modalists”, since this is really what your definition comes down to.
 
That the oneness is more than mere species-oneness I do not deny. The question is what is the content of homoousian in your understanding? Soren below will acknowledge that PaulDupre does well to deny that Christ is homoousian with all mankind. While Soren’s complement acknowledges the declarations of Chalcedon, he is aware that PaulDupre’s position is a product of how consubstantial has come to be used.
I am not convinced being a Social Trinitarian should be precluded for a Catholic, but I still lean solidly towards the view that you are expressing a Social model of the Trinity.
Perhaps you can “fill” the word homoousian beyond species-oneness while not pouring in Social content then I could see how you embrace Nicea and are not precisely the Social Trinitarian Bryan Cross criticizes. Clearly homoousian must be associated with oneness of being. It would seems this association within Nicea was not associated with the Social oneness advocated by me and other Social Trinitarians. I do not see how to fill homoousian with meaning without moving into the space I call neo-modalism.
cont …
To me, homoousios is talking about the “essential attributes of deity” (to borrow a phrase from one Trinitarian’s book, though I can’t remember who right now). It is the set of characteristics that are essential to being God. In the context of Nicaea, the important characteristic was being “eternal”. The question there was whether Jesus was a created entity or not. By declaring the Son to be consubstantial/homoousios with the Father, they were saying that He is co-eternal with the Father, and therefore not created.

The oneness of the Persons is also one of will, love, intent, purpose, etc., and they are one in all of these ways in a way beyond anything possible by three humans. It is part of their nature to be one in these ways.
 
Tom,

I am not saying the “homoousian” is said in a different sense in the case of Christ and the Father and Christ and humanity. I am saying that “homoousian,” sad univocally of both divine and human nature, nevertheless has different entailments for each. The language of Chalcedon cries out against reading it equivocally, because it expresses both relations in parallel: “Christ is homouoisan with the Father with respect to his divinity, homoousian with us with respect to his humanity.” If “homoousian” is not used univocally here, I would have to acknowledge this as a very poor doctrinal definition.

So how do I work it out? My thought here may be more easily expressed within the Latin terminology of existence and essence. When the council says that Fathers and Son are “homoousian,” it means they have the same essence, divinity. Likewise, the Son and man have the same essence, humanity. Thus the question “What is the Son?” has two correct answers: God and man. No equivocation on the term “essence” occurs here. However, in the case of God, because his name is “I am,” his essence defines his existence, for unqualified being identifies him. This means that if the Son has one essence with the Father, he also has one existence with the Father. The converse does not hold for human nature, because unqualified being is not part of the definition of “man.” Hence, the difference does not lie within two senses of homousian, but within the different natures of the things to which the term homoousian is applied. The ontological underpinnings of that difference can be seen in scripture.

(continued)
 
(continuing from previous post)

I found the metaphysic of separation to be present in your writing at three points, although at second glance, I admit I may have been mistaken. First was your argument about the failure of Trinitarian theosis, but having read your response, I now see it is a different argument from what I thought. The next place where I found it most clearly was when you asked, “Where does the nature end and the person begin?” I also thought I saw it when you said that in Social Trinitarianism, the personhood of the Father and Son is “robust,” because I took that to imply a contrast between the supposedly less personal understanding of Trintarianism. On a second look, after reading your reply, I can see how I misread you in each case.

In my own defense, however, one of the reasons that I interpreted you as I did is because I consider your words in the context of what I already know about Mormon theology, in which I find a thoroughgoing embrace of the metaphysic of separation at virtually every point. I believe this happens because it is demanded by Mormon materialism. In a materialist metaphysic, nothing can exist as an individual except by separation from others – because bodily separation is the only principle of individuation that material beings have. Yet, in an immaterial metaphysic, that need not be the case, because it is necessary that non-physical beings be individuated on the different basis from material division. Yet because you have to grant the possibility, or at least the conceivability, of immaterial subsistence to see that, the materialist commitments of Mormon theology prevent even very intelligent Mormons from grasping this point. An example of this can be found in Ostler’s critique of the Trinity in Aquinas as he summarizes it in this FAIR article: fairlds.org/FAIR_Conferences/2005_Fallacy_of_Fundamentalist_Assumptions.html

The persons of the Trinity are reduced to mere relational substances on his view, or relational subsistences, that is, the persons aren’t things, they’re not separate, they’re not distinct–they’re mere relations. And if you ask, ‘Well doesn’t a relation require something and something else that are in relation together?’ I would say yes, but let’s take away the something and the something else and see what’s in between and that’s what Thomas Aquinas was talking about–those are the persons.

The context of this statement is an attempt to briefly summarize Ostler’s case for why the Trinity reduces to either modalism or incoherence, and admittedly he doesn’t give it the full treatment here that does in his first book. But the point at which he reveals the underlying metaphysic of separation is when he assumes that separation between somethings, with another “in between,” is necessary for them to have individual being – a materialist assumption, which reveals that, unbeknownst even to himself, his is making an external critique based on materialism, and not a refutation of the internal coherence of Aquinas’s thought. The metaphysic of separation is the crux of Ostler’s argument.

Now Ostler is not even the best source for this. I say that that metaphysic of separation is inherent in Mormonism per se, not just because materialism entails it, but because it is contained in the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints’ official, inspired criticisms of the ecumenical Councils that defined the Trinity. In evidence of this, I call in witness Elder Dallin H. Oaks, speaking at the April 1995 General Conference:

In the process of what we call the Apostasy, the tangible, personal God described in the Old and New Testaments was replaced by the abstract, incomprehensible deity defined by compromise with the speculative principles of Greek philosophy. The received language of the Bible remained, but the so-called “hidden meanings” of scriptural words were now explained in the vocabulary of a philosophy alien to their origins. In the language of that philosophy, God the Father ceased to be a Father in any but an allegorical sense. He ceased to exist as a comprehensible and compassionate being. And the separate identity of his Only Begotten Son was swallowed up in a philosophical abstraction that attempted to define a common substance and an incomprehensible relationship.

I could multiply examples of this kind of thinking almost indefinitely; even if I limited myself only to official statements like this one, I could make an impressive dossier.

Of course, you are not quite like other Mormons. You get a lot about Catholicism that others do not, because you not only were Catholic, but admit to Catholic leanings in your thinking. In fact, you can probably spot the misrepresentations of conciliar theology in Elder Oaks’s inspired comments as quickly as I can. For this reason, I suggest that if you find yourself resistive to the metaphysic of separation, it is because of your Catholic influences, not your Mormon ones. The project you seem to be working in this thread is a way of fitting a doctrine of participation, really a scholastic idea, to a model of deification drawn from Mormonism. But the two are incompatible at the level of first philosophy.

[Note: because this post is long, I did not quote all Tom’s posts that I am partly responding to. They are on this thread at #’s 59-62.]
 
I know and it was followed by:

Like I said:

For that to be true you need to:
  1. Explain Mormon exaltation
  2. Defend it as logically consistent
You have not honestly done either. As you have pointed out a few times, I have not answered any of your questions. The reason for that is because you have not explained Mormon exaltation which means you could never have defended it as logically consistent. Having me answer questions is just a way for you to avoid the subject of your thread.

I think a more honest name for the thread would be “Another chance for Tom to burn a Catholic straw man”
I have known Tom by correspondence for some years now, and I can vouch that he is positively allergic to making straw man arguments knowingly. You will rarely meet a published Catholic apologist who has studied LDS theology with the same breadth and detail that Tom has given to Catholicism.
 
I have known Tom by correspondence for some years now, and I can vouch that he is positively allergic to making straw man arguments knowingly. You will rarely meet a published Catholic apologist who has studied LDS theology with the same breadth and detail that Tom has given to Catholicism.
Could you explain the Mormon belief in exaltation and if Tom explained it already were I missed it?
 
We do not become homoousios with the Father. That is why the Byzantines emphasize the distinction between essence and energy. We participate in the energy of God. The Latin Church doesn’t say that we become homoousios with the Father either. Both east and west have openly denied that we become homoousios with God. The west might say that we participate in the life of the Trinity or some other similar statement, but they always maintain an absolute distinction between the Trinity and all of creation. The east emphasizes this through their distinction between essence and energy. We remain human persons, with a human essence/nature. Jesus Christ was a divine person who took upon Himself a human nature.

The idea of a divine essence that is seperate from the three persons of the Trinity is a fantasy. The essence of God is identifiable with the three persons, and it is not found seperate from them just as human nature apart from human individuals is a fantasy. Jesus Christ was eternally begotten of the Father, and he was later begotten through the virgin Mary. He recieved His divine existence from the Father, and is an eternal being. We recieved our human existence from our parents who recieved it from their parents. We are temporal beings. We can’t cross the barrier between temporal and eternal, and we will always remain temporal beings even if we might participate in eternal existence. We can never cease to be created.
 
I am of the opinion that I have in fact “Explain{ed} Mormon exaltation,” and that I have “Defend{ed} it as logically consistent.”
When you say, “You have not honestly done either,” (bolding mine) are you suggesting that I have dishonestly done them? I have never really understood why someone would think I would claim to believe something I do not in fact believe, but if I understand you correctly then you think I have.
What can I do to help you see that I am not lying to you?
[your response was 6 lines] After reading the King Follett Discourse and the Gospel Principle Manual, I don’t see what you have said here matching those documents. In a previous thread you claimed Mormon deification was both rational and biblical. When I read those two documents I’m not seeing rational or biblical, so I was hoping you were going to show how they were but you seem to have taken a path which avoids those two documents.
Also I think there is more about what I believe in this thread as a LDS than there is from anyone else about what they believe. I have certainly tried to address Catholic beliefs, but I assure you I try hard to not misrepresent Catholic beliefs.
How would I need to communicate to you about Catholic beliefs for you to believe that I have tried to understand them? I think this thread has demonstrated that CatholicGuyNY and Soren1 do not hold identical views. I try to deal with this, but it is not my intention to build “Catholic straw men.” If I am to not be Catholic I intend for to not be the best that is Catholicism not some simple “this Pope was a bad man,” thing.
[Catholic rant 8 lines]A typical ratio of answer to Catholic rant, but to answer your question: Stop communicating to me about Catholic beliefs until you have explained the Mormon Church’s doctrine of exaltation (the subject of your thread) and maybe how Ostler fits in.

note:If your true desire is to compare and contrast Ostler and Catholicism; I think Soren1 has given you something to respond to.
 
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