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djames99
Guest
I carried this over from the Scripture forum. It treats on the dissimilarities of judicial norms applied to created beings, and I feel seems non characteristic for a universe of plural created being environment.
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I find some judicial inconsistencies in the sentence of Adam and Eve.
This process of intrusion cannot be physically prevented at it’s source or point of application.
The case of the fall of the angels, their free choice was imputed to them individually, and no blanket stigma to the genus(aware intelligent communitive spiritual beings) was applied. The reasoning of this decision was that each angel was unique and of it’s own species. The fact that they were of the same genus and similar in communicative abilities the courts found irrelevant. The fault is attributable to the genus.
The case of the fall of man, the woman ate the forbidden fruit and passed it to the man who also took a bite. Here the defensive celestial statutes readily available to the higher beings was not available to Eve. The obvious fact that a spirit form who tempted her was not the same species as the dual nature form of Eve, should therefore negate the stigmatic process to man, since we know that communicative abilities is not a factor, and only the type of being is significant. I don’t understand this reasoning. The direct sin of Eve could be imputed, as it was in the spirit to spirit analogy. We note that the mechanism is the same in that one persuades in some way to an action. One direct, another subtley. The differences imply some mitigation to the least advantaged*.
Another mystery to me is are the odds for a sin to be committed. If man is fallible, then the odds are two, that he will sin immediately, that he will sin later. If there were no external influences, then we could realize a Garden scene with possible stigmatization 1000 years down the road with the result of millions of generations of pre-sinless ancestors, mixed with a population of thousands of post original sin progeny. My question is, what are the odds that man happens to sin immediately and conveniently, orienting only progeny to the stigmatic agenda.?
Rawls, A Theory of Justice.
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I find some judicial inconsistencies in the sentence of Adam and Eve.
Code:
Up to the time of this garden event, judicially we know the Justice system was already fully established by the events of the fall of the angels. We know the punitive standards so far indicate that those created who are close to God, that is, those upper echelon executives close enough to experience a spiritual "sense" of a God existing, not quite a beatification in the true definition, even benefited by a one on one social interaction with him, could, before receiving sanctifying grace, find themselves in hell for sins committed.
Next, we jump to a different type of being. In the environment where he could sin, these dual nature beings are restricted to many of the privileges a close relationship and living conditions with it's experiences could provide. As well, the entity that is the enemy of this being acts out obscurely on him when desired, is capable of putting into mechanical action through the chemical and biological nature by applying his tempting instrument.
The case of the fall of the angels, their free choice was imputed to them individually, and no blanket stigma to the genus(aware intelligent communitive spiritual beings) was applied. The reasoning of this decision was that each angel was unique and of it’s own species. The fact that they were of the same genus and similar in communicative abilities the courts found irrelevant. The fault is attributable to the genus.
The case of the fall of man, the woman ate the forbidden fruit and passed it to the man who also took a bite. Here the defensive celestial statutes readily available to the higher beings was not available to Eve. The obvious fact that a spirit form who tempted her was not the same species as the dual nature form of Eve, should therefore negate the stigmatic process to man, since we know that communicative abilities is not a factor, and only the type of being is significant. I don’t understand this reasoning. The direct sin of Eve could be imputed, as it was in the spirit to spirit analogy. We note that the mechanism is the same in that one persuades in some way to an action. One direct, another subtley. The differences imply some mitigation to the least advantaged*.
Another mystery to me is are the odds for a sin to be committed. If man is fallible, then the odds are two, that he will sin immediately, that he will sin later. If there were no external influences, then we could realize a Garden scene with possible stigmatization 1000 years down the road with the result of millions of generations of pre-sinless ancestors, mixed with a population of thousands of post original sin progeny. My question is, what are the odds that man happens to sin immediately and conveniently, orienting only progeny to the stigmatic agenda.?
Rawls, A Theory of Justice.