A Mature Catholic Response Needed

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That verse “All have sinned” does not actually mean every single person who has ever lived has sinned. There are exceptions: Jesus did not sin. Babies who die in infancy do not sin. People without the mental capcity to commit a sin may live their entire lives never once sinning. Obviously “all” does not mean “all.”

And while we inherit sin from Adam, surely God could have shielded Mary from that. To suggest otherwise is to limit God. Evangelicals I know believe once they are “saved” God no longer looks at their sin, but instead, He looks to Jesus who paid their debt on the cross. They believe their sin has been wiped clean - the sins they have commited, and the sins they will commit - white as snow. What I don’t understand is if they believe God could do that for them, why couldn’t he do it for the Mary, the Mother of Jesus?

To those who believe Mary did sin, what do you believe it means that she was FULL OF GOD’S GRACE??? If we are saved by God’s grace - free from the bonds and punishment of sin by God’s grace, what does it mean that Mary was FULL of His grace???
 
That verse “All have sinned” does not actually mean every single person who has ever lived has sinned. There are exceptions: Jesus did not sin. Babies who die in infancy do not sin. People without the mental capcity to commit a sin may live their entire lives never once sinning. Obviously “all” does not mean “all.”

And while we inherit sin from Adam, surely God could have shielded Mary from that. To suggest otherwise is to limit God. Evangelicals I know believe once they are “saved” God no longer looks at their sin, but instead, He looks to Jesus who paid their debt on the cross. They believe their sin has been wiped clean - the sins they have commited, and the sins they will commit - white as snow. What I don’t understand is if they believe God could do that for them, why couldn’t he do it for the Mary, the Mother of Jesus?

To those who believe Mary did sin, what do you believe it means that she was FULL OF GOD’S GRACE??? If we are saved by God’s grace - free from the bonds and punishment of sin by God’s grace, what does it mean that Mary was FULL of His grace???
To use your words, “God ‘could have’ shielded Mary…” “could have” being the key…yes God can do anything. All believers are full of Gods Grace…and “all have sinned” is everyone…past, present and future. The next line after “all have sinned” is and “fall short of God’s Glory”…past, present and future…all men will fall short because of the sin the inherited from Adam. I do not limit God in anyway…I know God can do anything…you say “God could have”…which is fine if that is what you want to believe, but all of Scripture goes against this belief.

Also, just for my reference, please show me where it says she is “full of grace”…thank you.
 
That verse “All have sinned” does not actually mean every single person who has ever lived has sinned. There are exceptions: Jesus did not sin. Babies who die in infancy do not sin. People without the mental capcity to commit a sin may live their entire lives never once sinning. Obviously “all” does not mean “all.”

And while we inherit sin from Adam, surely God could have shielded Mary from that. To suggest otherwise is to limit God. Evangelicals I know believe once they are “saved” God no longer looks at their sin, but instead, He looks to Jesus who paid their debt on the cross. They believe their sin has been wiped clean - the sins they have commited, and the sins they will commit - white as snow. What I don’t understand is if they believe God could do that for them, why couldn’t he do it for the Mary, the Mother of Jesus?

To those who believe Mary did sin, what do you believe it means that she was FULL OF GOD’S GRACE??? If we are saved by God’s grace - free from the bonds and punishment of sin by God’s grace, what does it mean that Mary was FULL of His grace???
You’re right, because of Christ we are “white as snow” as you put it before God. We are no longer under judgment but now under grace because of Christ. Christ paid the price for ALL sin; past, present, and future. We are now made right before God and viewed as sinless and perfect before God because of Christ…NOT us. This however does not make us unable to sin. Because we are finite, imperfect, human beings we still function within those restraints. Because of our sin nature due to the fall we are “children of wrath” as Paul clearly states. Because of Christ we are made right before God…but that does not mean that we will stop sinning nor unable to sin. Everyone who is saved is full of the same grace Mary was when she walked on this earth. We are saved by that same grace and are perfect before God because of that grace.
 
You’re right, because of Christ we are “white as snow” as you put it before God. We are no longer under judgment but now under grace because of Christ. Christ paid the price for ALL sin; past, present, and future. We are now made right before God and viewed as sinless and perfect before God because of Christ…NOT us. This however does not make us unable to sin. Because we are finite, imperfect, human beings we still function within those restraints. Because of our sin nature due to the fall we are “children of wrath” as Paul clearly states. Because of Christ we are made right before God…but that does not mean that we will stop sinning nor unable to sin. Everyone who is saved is full of the same grace Mary was when she walked on this earth. We are saved by that same grace and are perfect before God because of that grace.
Exactly 🙂 The Bible shows this simple truth.
 
So you think That are Lord Jesus Christ lived in a sinful vessel for ( 9mons )
That’s why He came here…to do that very thing…and yet remain sinless and perfect. Even while He lived His entire life among sinful vessels.
 
That’s why He came here…to do that very thing…and yet remain sinless and perfect. Even while He lived His entire life among sinful vessels.
Jesus was the one “full of grace” stated in John 1, the only place in the Bible you will find that term…He was spotless, a pure sacrifice…if Mary was this pure and spotless…she could have gone to the Cross.
 
Very nice explanation, however, that is a big stretch. Like stouts said above, you do not need a Savior if you are without sin. Romans 3:23 says ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God…Mary and everyone else fall under “ALL”. Mary went through the old testament ritual after giving birth and gave a "sin’ offering…more scripture points to her having sin than do not.

The leaders/people of the Catholic faith have lifted Mary to this high position without her even knowing it. Mary saw her need for a Savior like all of us need and confessed this with her own mouth.
Gabriel of 12;

Mary and Joseph performed these acts according to the Law of God, of which Jesus had not fulfilled yet. Jesus begins to fulfill all of God’s Laws,and the Prophets from the beginning of his conception and the “Annunciation” of Gabriel to blessed Mary from his infancy, to the cross when he states “It is finished”.

The act of Jesus saving Mary at her conception, was before she was tainted with original sin, Jesus saved her in her conception from the fall of Adam, so yes Mary’s soul proclaimed the “GREATNESS” of the Lord" “my spirit rejoices in God my savior FOR HE HAS LOOKED UPON HIS HANDMAIDS LOWLINESS; behold from now on ALL ages will me blessed” Luke 1:46.

The Catholic leaders/people have lifted up Mary, not because we do so, but because the bible strictly states this; Here read the bible witness for yourself; Luke 1:52 "He has thrown down the rulers from their thrones BUT LIFTED UP the lowly. Mary sure did know that God had lifted her up, Luke’s Gospel gives witness to it. I thought you were a bible believer? Catholics sure are and live it.
 
Gabriel of 12;

Mary and Joseph performed these acts according to the Law of God, of which Jesus had not fulfilled yet. Jesus begins to fulfill all of God’s Laws,and the Prophets from the beginning of his conception and the “Annunciation” of Gabriel to blessed Mary from his infancy, to the cross when he states “It is finished”.

The act of Jesus saving Mary at her conception, was before she was tainted with original sin, Jesus saved her in her conception from the fall of Adam, so yes Mary’s soul proclaimed the “GREATNESS” of the Lord" “my spirit rejoices in God my savior FOR HE HAS LOOKED UPON HIS HANDMAIDS LOWLINESS; behold from now on ALL ages will me blessed” Luke 1:46.

The Catholic leaders/people have lifted up Mary, not because we do so, but because the bible strictly states this; Here read the bible witness for yourself; Luke 1:52 "He has thrown down the rulers from their thrones BUT LIFTED UP the lowly. Mary sure did know that God had lifted her up, Luke’s Gospel gives witness to it. I thought you were a bible believer? Catholics sure are and live it.
Nothing in the Bible says anything even close to Jesus saving Mary at her conception. Lifting up the lowly refers to everyone…Matthew 23:12 says “for WHOEVER humbles themselves will be lifted up”…plus this has nothing to do with her conception…she is merely saying that Jesus has lowered those who have exalted themselves(ie rulers) and lifted up all that are humble.
 
Full of Grace

Mary was filled with grace by God sometime in the past and remained in that state of grace. That’s what Kecharitomene means. Luke 1:28 Or in vocative laymens terms - full of grace c.f. Aramaic Peshita

If she was filled in the past, her conception seems most logical. If not, when seems most logical?

Mary never lost her grace, for her entire life she was never without God’s fullness of grace.

All have sinned

Genesis 6:17 I am going to bring floodwaters on the earth to destroy all life under the heavens, every creature that has the breath of life in it. Everything on earth will perish.

did He destroy ALL life?

John 12:32 But I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself

Will ALL men be drawn to Christ?

And fall short of the glory of God

How could a women who carried very God in the flesh in her womb for nine months, gave birth to Him, raised Him, watched Him die on a cross fall short of His glory ???

Lk Ch 2 51 And he went down with them and came to Nazareth and was subject to them. And his mother kept all these words in her heart.52 And Jesus advanced in wisdom and age and grace with God and men.
 
Nothing in the Bible says anything even close to Jesus saving Mary at her conception. Lifting up the lowly refers to everyone…Matthew 23:12 says “for WHOEVER humbles themselves will be lifted up”…plus this has nothing to do with her conception…she is merely saying that Jesus has lowered those who have exalted themselves(ie rulers) and lifted up all that are humble.
The only problem with your position is that there is indeed evidence in the Bible for the position (although you disagree with the interpretation), plus the Catholic Church disagrees with you, the Eastern and Oriental Orthodox disagree with you, the Early Church Fathers disagree with you, and even the major leaders of the Reformation disagree with you. Why should I believe your position over the traditional one?

The secondary issue here, of course, is that of Sola Scriptura. Protestants generally have the attitude of the Bible being the ultimate authority, and if something isn’t supported by the Bible, then it should be thrown out. Catholics and Orthodox have the attitude that Scripture (the canon of which was compiled and decided upon by the Catholic/Orthodox Church) should be interpreted in light of Sacred Tradition, and that as long as something doesn’t specifically contradict the Bible, AND it can be found in the Early Church, then it is ok.
 
Rolltide and others have provided excellent, scholarly, thorough, mature, Catholic, scriptural responses.

Please allow me to give an emotional response.

A priest who I shall not name, was given to making a “jocular” almost mocking comment about the relationship between Jesus and Mary. The first time I heard it I was horrified. Really horrified. No joke. *

I lost touch with him, but a few years later, I read that he dropped dead right in the middle of Mass. Keeled right over. Hit the floor. No joke.

I would say that God has Infinite Patience, but even Infinite Patience has its limits.

In other words, if you would be friends with Someone, don’t mock His Mother.*
 
Nothing in the Bible says anything even close to Jesus saving Mary at her conception. Lifting up the lowly refers to everyone…Matthew 23:12 says “for WHOEVER humbles themselves will be lifted up”…plus this has nothing to do with her conception…she is merely saying that Jesus has lowered those who have exalted themselves(ie rulers) and lifted up all that are humble.
Gabriel of 12;
What happened? I thought we were discussing Mary’s perpetual virginity?
Luke has Mary speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, she has just conceived the Son of God in her womb. Matthew is talking about another subject matter, in fact Matthew is confirming what he already believes in the Perpetual virginity of Mary, that is why he ascertains Mary’s (canticle) Fiat after the fact that God has already proven to Matthew through Mary what God can do. Can you deny the Holy Spirit?

God saves whom he wills, not your interpretation. Here is another scripture that contradicts your interpretation again;

Romans 8:28 We know that all things work for good for those who love God, 6** who are called according to his purpose.** 29 For those he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, so that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. 30 And those he predestined he also called; and those he called he also justified; and those he justified he also glorified. 31 What then shall we say to this? If God is for us, who can be against us?

Here is the Lord speaking to all those who deceive; If God places enmity between the Woman (Mary) and sin (satan), would you not believe God can create such a creature without sin? Or the god you profess is not capable of creating a called person without sin?

Genesis 3; 14 Then the LORD God said to the serpent: “Because you have done this, you shall be banned from all the animals and from all the wild creatures; On your belly shall you crawl, and dirt shall you eat all the days of your life. 15 I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; He will strike at your head, while you strike at his heel.”
 
Emnity between them.

That does make a very strong statement there.

If Mary had personal sin, what would the emnity be between them?
 
Very nice explanation, however, that is a big stretch. Like stouts said above, you do not need a Savior if you are without sin. Romans 3:23 says ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God…Mary and everyone else fall under “ALL”. Mary went through the old testament ritual after giving birth and gave a "sin’ offering…more scripture points to her having sin than do not.

The leaders/people of the Catholic faith have lifted Mary to this high position without her even knowing it. Mary saw her need for a Savior like all of us need and confessed this with her own mouth.
Hi ServantofChrist,

I think Rolltide did an excellent job defending Mary’s perpetual virginity, so I won’t rehash the issue here. This thread now seems to be turning to Mary’s sinlessness, so here are some thoughts.

First, let’s be clear with what the Catholic Church teaches. Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception, the notion that Mary was born without the stain of original sin and was therefore preserved from sinning throughout her life. This teaching was infallibly declared by Pope Pius IX in 1854 as follows: “The Blessed Virgin Mary, in the first instance of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God, and in view of the foreseen merits of Jesus Christ, the savior of the human race, was preserved free from all stain of original sin.” This statement does not mean that Mary did not need a savior – she most certainly did (Lk. 1:47), and the Church does not teach otherwise. With God, however, all things are possible. For God, there is no time or space. Hence, Catholics believe that Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross was applied to Mary in a unique way. Medieval theologians used the following analogy to explain Mary’s salvation: whereas the ordinary person falls into a hole and must later be saved, Mary was saved from falling into the hole in the first place. At bottom, the Immaculate Conception is more a belief about the uniqueness of Jesus than Mary. Martin Luther himself appears to have accepted the Immaculate Conception to his dying day: “It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary’s soul was effected without Original Sin; so that in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified from Original Sin and adorned with God’s gifts, receiving a pure soul infused by God; thus from the first moment she began to live, she was free from all sin” (Sermon: On the Day of the Conception of Mary, the Mother of God [1527]).

Catholics believe that the Immaculate Conception is fully supported by Scripture (and certainly, in no way, contradicts it). First, turning to the passage in Genesis 3:15, God proclaims that He “will put enmity between you [Satan] and the woman, and between your offspring and hers.” Catholics believe that complete enmity could not exist between Satan and “the woman” (i.e., Mary, see Jn. 2:4-11; Jn. 19:26-27) if Mary was under the bondage of sin (complete enmity between “the woman” and the serpent is revisited in Revelation 12). Hence, Mary’s Immaculate Conception is prefigured in this prooftext.

Second, the Church Fathers repeatedly referred to Mary as the “new Eve.” It seems probable that this Apostolic Tradition originated with the Apostle John, who instructed St. Polycarp, who in turn instructed St. Irenaeus. Of course, the types and shadows in the Old Covenant are always made more perfect in their fulfillment in the New Covenant. Eve was born without sin but, through her disobedience, later sinned. If Mary is the new Eve, it follows that she too was born without sin but, through her obedience, was preserved by God’s special grace from later sinning.

Similarly, the Ark of the Covenant prefigured Mary as the Ark of the New Covenant. God gave Moses precise plans for the construction of the Ark, which was to house the very presence of God Himself (Ex. 25:9-22). The Ark was so holy and imbued with God’s presence that to touch it, even inadvertently, meant instantaneous death (2 Sam. 6:6-7; see also 1 Sam. 6:19). If the Ark, a gold-encased wooden box containing the “types” of the Christ to come was that holy, how much more unblemished and holy must God have made the vessel which He chose to literally bear His Son – the fulfillment of those very “types?”

Finally, Gabriel addressed Mary by saying: “Hail, favored one!” (Lk. 1:28). The Greek word kecharitomene conveys the idea of “grace” (since it is derived from the word charis, i.e., grace) and literally means “you who have been and remain filled with the divine favor.” Hence, it is appropriate to translate the address as “Hail, full of grace” as St. Jerome did in the Vulgate. Catholics see in this address (which can actually be seen as a re-naming of Mary, since the phrase is used in place of her name) an implication of Mary’s Immaculate Conception, since it indicates that Mary was, and remained, full of God’s grace.

And while Paul wrote that “all have sinned and fallen short” (Rom. 3:23), he certainly did not literally mean “all.” Jesus, for one, did not sin. Infants are incapable of sinning. Similarly, those with severe mental disabilities lack the ability to commit sin. Thus, this verse in no way disproves the Immaculate Conception. Furthermore, when Paul wrote that all have sinned in Adam (Rom. 5:12), his purpose was to insist that everyone must be redeemed through Christ. Catholics fully agree, and Mary is no exception (Lk. 1:47).

continued…
 
The Church Fathers also support Mary’s sinlessness (and, by the way, were unanimous in their belief that Mary was perpetually a virgin, with St. Jerome demolishing his opponent on Biblical grounds alone in his treatise Against Helvidius: The Perpetual Virginity of the Blessed Virgin Mary [ca. 383 AD], available for free online at Newadvent’s website).

From the earliest Tradition, Mary was known as “all holy,” as “ever-virgin,” as the “New Eve,” and as the “co-operator” in the plan of salvation. True, her Immaculate Conception was not formally defined by the Catholic Church until 1854 (but then again, the NT canon and Trinity weren’t defined until the 4th century nor were the two natures of Christ defined until the 5th century). Yet, the earliest Christians understood an “all-holiness” about her (and early Church Fathers like St. Justin Martyr, St. Irenaeus and Tertullian referred to her as the “New Eve” while others, including St. Hippolytus, St. Ephraim, St. Ambrose and St. Augustine, specifically wrote about her sinlessness). Even Church Fathers like Origen, who intimated that Mary sinned once (just once! – I’ve never seen a Church Father say Mary was a common sinner like everyone else), elsewhere wrote that she was “all holy.” It took centuries of the most brilliant Christian minds (e.g., St. Augustine, St. Cyril of Alexandria and Duns Scotus), aided by the Holy Spirit I believe, to fully realize her special role in Christianity, including her Immaculate Conception, which I believe is the logical conclusion or “fleshing out” of Mary as “New Eve” (Eve was created without sin and Mary was, through God’s grace, even greater than Eve, remaining free from sin throughout her life).

Although St. Thomas Aquinas did not formally endorse the Immaculate Conception as it was later defined by the Church in 1854 (he lived 600 years earlier), he did state that “she was sanctified in the womb” (Summa Theologica IV, Q.27, Art. 1) and affirmed that she was “preserved from all actual sin” during her life (id. IV, Q. 27, Art. 4).
 
Emnity between them.

That does make a very strong statement there.

If Mary had personal sin, what would the emnity be between them?
Gabriel of 12;
God cannot Lie. My Catholic faith believes Mary was saved by Jesus in her immaculate conception, and Mary remained a Virgin before, during after giving birth to Jesus. The enmity of God’s creation still remains. Thus God cannot be deceived nor deceive “Amen”.
 
Gabriel of 12;
God cannot Lie. My Catholic faith believes Mary was saved by Jesus in her immaculate conception, and Mary remained a Virgin before, during after giving birth to Jesus. The enmity of God’s creation still remains. Thus God cannot be deceived nor deceive “Amen”.
There has to be more than her being saved, or being a virgin. All human creation that ends up with God is saved (according to my understanding) and all the angels who did not fall.

But, God puts an emnity between them.

What is this emnity?

Are you saying the emnity is God’s creation outside of Mary?
 
There has to be more than her being saved, or being a virgin. All human creation that ends up with God is saved (according to my understanding) and all the angels who did not fall.

But, God puts an emnity between them.

What is this emnity?

Are you saying the emnity is God’s creation outside of Mary?
Gabriel of 12;

The Strength of God (Gabriel the arch angel) calls this mystery in time “full of Grace”. This is the name Gabriel calls Mary.

This mystery is wonderful, for God speaks singular of placing enmity between the Woman (Mary) and sin (satan), and also the Church this has connotations of “infallibility” which is another topic. Meaning that the Catholic church is the mystical body of Jesus Christ on earth, that is why Jesus quotes from Matthew 16:16-19 that the gates of the netherworld will “NEVER” Prevail. The point is, although man is fallible in the Catholic Church, but the Catholic church (body of Jesus Christ) God has placed “enmity” between the serpent (sin) and Jesus his body which the New testament defines as the Catholic church.

So this enmity (full of Grace) applies to Mary singular, and then to the Catholic Church where she (female context) will be made spotless, clean and pure before God, without the stain of sin. This can only be accomplished beginning when Jesus is always present in his Mystical body of the Eucharist. So yes enmity from sin is placed both in Mary and the body of Jesus Christ in the Catholic church.
 
I would first like to say I love you all…and no, I am not buttering you up lol. I am just looking for an honest and mature response from some of you. This is in no way to offend anyone, beat you up or knock your beliefs.

If you believe that she was a virgin and did not have any other children, I would like to know why you believe this? My other question is this: If your answer to the above is because your church believes this…or something similiar, then I would like to know why you believe your church over what the Bible says?

**No one believes all of it, & no one can. It legislates for slavery, which it nowhere rejects. Try keeping slaves now, & you would - quite rightly, be arrested. That is just one example of the meaninglessness of claims to “believe all of the Bible”. **​

Again, which morality is “God’s word”: that of Samuel, telling Saul to exterminate the entire people of Amalek - or the command of Jesus to love enemies ? One of those commands has to give way to the other; for they cannot both be valid as Christian ethics. Extermination of enemies is conduct worthy of Adolf Hitler - not of Jesus: to treat these two actions as both good Christian behaviour, is to make Jesus & Hitler moral equivalents - & any doctrine which implies that, is self-condemned as morally bankrupt. :mad: And so it goes on: people who claim to “believe all of the Bible” usually pick out certain parts, while ignoring others; IOW, they prioritise some parts over others.
  • **The OT contains a command to execute a troublesome son - the NT nowhere cancels this; again, that is not a command Christian would be well-advised to try. **
  • **The NT forbids the swearing of oaths, twice - hardly any Christians or Churches obey that explicit & unambiguous prohibition, even though Jesus is one of those who prohibited the practice; so oaths are takien in courts of law, despite Jesus having forbidden them to his followers. **
  • As for the Biblical prohibition on taking interest, the mediaeval RC Church tried hard to outlaw it; but the USA & other “Christian” countries would collapse if this prohibition were enforced - Christians treat it as though it had never been made; even though the NT nowhere cancels it.
  • **Jesus cancelled neither the Sabbath, nor the Levitical priesthood (the latter is called “eternal” in the OT); yet no Christians have the Levitical priesthood, & only the SDAs have kept the Sabbath: all other Christians have, regardless of the Bible, changed to Sunday. **
**There are many more examples that show that people who claim to “believe all of the Bible” do no such thing. They couldn’t, because the NT corrects the OT at several points, & the OT itself was compiled over many hundreds of years; which one of the reasons that it reflects a variety of understandings of ethics, the later generally correcting the earlier. **

**The Bible is the record of a long spiritual & moral development - it is impossible to treat all parts of it as being of exactly the same weight, authority & relevance to the problems of any one culture later on. “The Bible” is an abstraction - the reality is the dozens of very varied & unlike books which give meaning to this concept, this abstraction. **

**BTW, the mere fact that something appears in “the Bible” does not make it good or true: the Bible contains many accounts of barbarities, violence, incest, murder, rebellion, lies, & a host of other evils. Jesus is called a deceiver in the Bible, & a demoniac, & a blasphemer, & accursed, & sin. Claims to “believe all of the Bible” are easy to make: but they have to come to terms with what the texts actually say & actually mean. Conversely, there is a great deal of moral teaching outside the Bible which is superior to parts or all of it - the abolition of slavery & the treating of women as human beings rather than property are two examples. Much of the Bible is a wicked book, utterly unsuitable for children, who for too long have been taught to regard the bloodthirsty & vindictive Jehovah of the OT as the moral equivalent of the Father of Jesus: this is a recipe for disaster. **

**The Bible should be censored, or expurgated, or banned, or read only by those whom it will not corrupt. **

As to Mary:
  • **I don’t think it’s worth bothering about; MO is that she had other children too, as several passages allow. **
  • **If the CC had considered her non-perpetual virginity to be important, it would have “got round” the passages it treats as evidence for her perpetual virginity. It’s very good at imposing its ideas on the evidence, back-to-front as that is. **
  • **The Fathers could have nothing to say on the matter, since they were not present, & knew nothing of how conception actually occurs; so they lumbered the Church with ideas arrived at by theological logic, not gynaecological fact. **
 
As to Mary:
  • **I don’t think it’s worth bothering about; MO is that she had other children too, as several passages allow. **
“Your opinion?” That sounds like a Protestant approach to Biblical interpretation to me. You don’t give any weight to Church teaching or Apostolic Tradition, both of which are firmly against your personal speculation here? Just curious.
  • **The Fathers could have nothing to say on the matter, since they were not present, & knew nothing of how conception actually occurs; so they lumbered the Church with ideas arrived at by theological logic, not gynaecological fact. **
I don’t see how you can say the Fathers have nothing to say on this matter. You just gave me your opinion (based on your interpretation of the Bible, I presume), even though you didn’t live 2000 years ago. The fact is, the Fathers do shed plenty of light on the proper interpretation of the Bible since they were taught by the Apostles themselves. If every Church Father to address the issue says that Mary was “ever-virgin,” it’s not a stretch to believe that this was an apostolic tradition, handed down by the Apostles themselves. How did they all come to the wrong conclusion? That’s like saying the Church Fathers, who unanimously taught the Real Presence in the Eucharist and baptismal regeneration, beginning with St. Ignatius of Antioch (105 AD) and St. Justin Martyr (ca. 150 AD), had nothing to say about those issues either because they were not present at the Last Supper or during Jesus’ ministry. The fact is, the Apostles taught these beliefs to their successors, the bishops, so what the Church Fathers have to say on a given topic (particularly where there is a consensus view, as their is with her ever-virginity) carries very heavy weight.
 
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