A Mormon- Catholic debate

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Why did the apostles initially replace themselves instead of solely appointing bishops at the beginning if it wasn’t important when it comes to handing down authority? For example, after Judas died, the apostles met and chose Matthias to take his place. Later, Barnabas, Paul, and James replaced apostles who died to continue the system of having 12 apostles. And how is authority handed down in a way that makes it valid?

I’m somewhat playing devil’s advocate b/c I want to be extremely clear about Catholic beliefs because there isn’t room for hesitation when you’re talking to Mormons about religion.
 
Why did the apostles initially replace themselves instead of solely appointing bishops at the beginning if it wasn’t important when it comes to handing down authority? For example, after Judas died, the apostles met and chose Matthias to take his place. Later, Barnabas, Paul, and James replaced apostles who died to continue the system of having 12 apostles. And how is authority handed down in a way that makes it valid?

I’m somewhat playing devil’s advocate b/c I want to be extremely clear about Catholic beliefs because there isn’t room for hesitation when you’re talking to Mormons about religion.
They ordained men who were called Bishops. The line of authority is intact.
 
Why did the apostles initially replace themselves instead of solely appointing bishops at the beginning if it wasn’t important when it comes to handing down authority? For example, after Judas died, the apostles met and chose Matthias to take his place. Later, Barnabas, Paul, and James replaced apostles who died to continue the system of having 12 apostles. And how is authority handed down in a way that makes it valid?

I’m somewhat playing devil’s advocate b/c I want to be extremely clear about Catholic beliefs because there isn’t room for hesitation when you’re talking to Mormons about religion.
You have basically answered your own question. Just like Matthias was chosen, he chose others. He then had apostolic authority, and he chose his replacement(s). The same applies to the others.

Keep in mind that the church was growing, and more were needed, so they would have given others the authority to teach, etc.

Back in the day (biblical times), a stole is/was a sign of teaching authority. When a student had learned all he could, the teacher would give him his stole. Then, when he went to another town to teach, and they asked by what authority he taught, he showed his stole.

I actually learned this from one of our priests who did a wonderful Explanation Mass.
 
In Ephesians Paul says:
And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ:Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ: That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive; But speaking the truth in love, may grow up into him in all things, which is the head, even Christ (Ephesians 4:11-15)
Has the entire Catholic church come to a unity of the faith, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ? If not, why then did they do away with Prophets and Apostles? For Paul makes it clear that these priesthood offices should remain until such an end is achieved.
 
Christ’s Church has a foundation of 12 Apostles. Ephesians 2: 19-22

“So then you are no longer strangers and sojourners, but you are fellow citizens with the holy ones and members of the household of God, built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, with Christ Jesus himself as the capstone. Through him the whole structure is held together and grows into a temple sacred in the Lord; in him you also are being built together into a dwelling place of God in the Spirit.”

Rev. 21:14

“The wall of the city had twelve courses of stones as its foundation, on which were inscribed the twelve names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb.”

The scripture you site lists some of the gifts of the Holy Spirit. It says nothing of gifts being exclusive to the priesthood. The Catholic church has both apostles and prophets that are given to individuals, in service of God.

An apostle, from Classical Greek ἀπόστολος (apóstolos), meaning “one who is sent away”,[1] is a messenger and ambassador. The purpose of such “sending away” is to convey messages, and thus “messenger” is a common alternative translation.

Some who have had the gift of messenger or ambassador, AKA, apostle.

The gift of prophecy is given to some as well. This website lists some of those who have had the gift of prophecy.
 
Also, please remember, St. Paul was the apostle to the gentiles. He had a very particularly strong gift, given to him by God. He was not one of the Twelve, but he is insistent that he is an apostle. Romans 1:1
 
Oh, and one more thing. 😃

All Christians are, by our calling as disciples of Christ, called to be both apostles and prophets.

Catholics in particular have apostleship as a calling. You can see this most pronounced in the liturgy of the Mass. Mass, being derived from the Latin word Missa, meaning dismissal. The liturgy ends with our dismissal: go in peace. What are to go and do? Spread the message, the Good News of Jesus Christ.

We are all prophets. By our baptism we are joined to Christ as prophets, priests and kings. A royal people. How is our gift of prophecy seen? Again, the most pronounced way, is our participation in the fulfilling of prophecy, that of, proclaiming the Son of God, who became Man, suffered, died and rose again. Every Christian participates in the fulfillment of prophecy, that of, Jesus Christ.

Hope that helps.
 
The gift of prophecy is given to some as well. This website lists some of those who have had the gift of prophecy.
While I fully and wholeheartedly support the Catholic position on this issue - and pray that all those outside it are converted - I must raise a red flag here.

The site you’ve linked to is a sad hodge-podge of orthodoxy, heterodoxy, and just plain weirdness.

The webmaster draws an arbitrary line between “pre-” and “post-” Vatican II revelations (who died and made him Pope?) that will only play into the Mormon position that an apostasy has taken, or is taking place. :confused:

The entire presentation on Hell contains some howlers (“Hell is at the centre of the Earth!”, “Scientists hear the cries of the damned!”) and is copied, wholesale, from an anti-Catholic website which I refuse to link to here. :mad:

While I do believe in the authenticity of all Church-approved private revelations, and I admire the guy’s zeal, I think he is misguided. A link to a more orthodox Catholic source would be widely appreciated.
 
Of Jesus, the Roman Catholic apologist , Steve Clifford, asks, “[D]id He keep His promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?” (See transporter.com/Mormonism/smc_rebut.html, end of first paragraph.)

One might ask whether the premise infused into that question is a correct premise. Namely, did Jesus promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?

Answers to this question would be appreciated but they must meet the following criteria and be supported by scriptural evidence:
  1. It must be Jesus who speaks.
  2. Jesus statement(s) must constitute a promise.
  3. It must be “His Church” to which he made the promise.
  4. That promise must be one where he promises to be “with” his Church (explain what that means).
  5. It must be a promise to be with the Church “until the end of time” (explain what that means).
  6. The phrase “through apostolic succession” must be explained: does it modify the phrase “with His Church” (meaning it is through apostolic succession that he would be with His Church), and, if so, describe what that means.
 
Of Jesus, the Roman Catholic apologist, Steve Clifford, asks, “[D]id He keep His promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?” (See transporter.com/Mormonism/smc_rebut.html, end of first paragraph.)

One might ask whether the premise infused into that question is a correct premise. Namely, did Jesus promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?

An answer to this question would be appreciated but any such answer must meet the following criteria and be supported by scriptural evidence:
  1. It must be Jesus who speaks.
  2. Jesus’ statement(s) must constitute a promise.
  3. It must be “His Church” about which he made the promise.
  4. That promise must be one by which he promises to be “with” his Church (explain what that means).
  5. It must be a promise to be with His Church “until the end of time” (explain what that means).
  6. The phrase “through apostolic succession” must be explained: does that phrase modify the phrase “with His Church” (meaning it is through apostolic succession that he would be with His Church), and, if so, describe what that means.
 
Of Jesus, the Roman Catholic apologist, Steve Clifford, asks, “[D]id He keep His promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?” (See transporter.com/Mormonism/smc_rebut.html, end of first paragraph.)

One might ask whether the premise infused into that question is a correct premise. Namely, did Jesus promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?

An answer to this question would be appreciated but any such answer must meet the following criteria and be supported by scriptural evidence:

1. It must be Jesus who speaks *
Time for a basic Mormon doctrine question. *Which is true?

A) the bible is the infallible Word of God
B) only bible verses quoting Jesus are infallible

If you believe the entire bible is the infallible word of God then by definition this is False (although keep in mind that you are missing 7 books that were removed by a printing company)

And, the bible never mentions Jesus saying he would send Joseph Smith 1800 years later to restore a church that he established to immediately fall into a “great apostasy” that no Mormon can say when and where occured. Do you at least have a theory that includes some bit of reasoning if not scripture as to when the great apostasy occured? Feel free to use the bible or tradition. 😃
 
Which is true?

A) the bible is the infallible Word of God
B) only bible verses quoting Jesus are infallible
Fine. If anyone can cite *any authoritative source *-- whether it be scripture or other authoritative source – where Jesus is quoted, that’s perfectly acceptable.

The point of my post is to drill down to the basics of the underlying premise of Steve Clifford’s statement. He uses that statement as the guiding principle of his argument and therefore essential to engaging with him in his dialogue, we must fully understand and address each element of his premise.

The first element of his premise is that Jesus made a promise. Thus, whether you can find reference to a promise made by Jesus in an authoritative source outside of scripture or only inside of scripture is not the issue; the issue is whether he made the promise and whether we can cite to a source that authoritatively attests to it being him who made the promise.

Most people cite the Bible as the one historical source for statements made by Jesus to his apostles in the Holy Land during his lifetime. If you want to rely on some non-canonical New Testament apocryphal source (such as the Gospel of Thomas [here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Thomas] or the Gospel According to the Hebrews [here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Hebrews], or the like), feel free to do so.

You will note that in his rebuttal to Barry Bickmore’s opening statement, Steve Clifford sets forth an exposition on how the Holy Roman Apostolic Catholic Church is Apostolic. And in that exposition, he draws upon one and only one New Testament source to advance the first element of his premise (that Jesus made a promise). Clifford writes, “Jesus commissioned His disciples to preach the gospel and make disciples of all nations. He promised that He would be with them always, to the close of the age (Matthew 28:18-20).”

We can accept that as a “promise” for what Jesus says he will do, he will do. But one of course needs more than that one passage of scripture in order to advance as a premise that Jesus made a “promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession.” Matthew 28:18-20 speaks of a promise without using that word but is silent on the concept of “apostolic succession,” which is part and parcel of Clifford’s premise. The full text of Matthew 28:18-20 reads (Revised Standard Version (RSV), Catholic Edition):

And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, to the close of the age.”

If anyone can discern from that one passage any notion of “apostolic succession,” one will need to explain how it speaks to that issue. From a plain reading of the words (whether in English or Greek), the passage seem to say nothing about “apostolic succession.” For one apostle to succeed another, the first must in some way stop funcioning as such and the second must somehow succeed to the position of the first. The passage does not even hint at such a notion.

In short, whether you cite a New Testament passage or some other authoritative source, find something that authoritatively meets the following criteria:
  1. It must be Jesus who speaks.
  2. Jesus’ statement(s) must constitute a promise.
  3. It must be “His Church” about which he makes the promise.
  4. The promise must be one by which he promises to be “with” his Church (explain what that means).
  5. It must be a promise to be with His Church “until the end of time” (explain what that means).
  6. The phrase “through apostolic succession” must be explained: does that phrase modify the phrase “with His Church” (meaning it is through apostolic succession that he would be with His Church), and, if so, describe what that means.
 
Fine. If anyone can cite *any authoritative source *-- whether it be scripture or other authoritative source – where Jesus is quoted, that’s perfectly acceptable.
Hi Stephen -

You are avoiding answering my one simple question. 😦 It’s either A or B.

Catholic view:

Answer is A) no where in scripture does it say that for something to be true, it must be a quote from Jesus. The bible is the infallible word of God, “profitable for teaching” but it is not the complete rule of faith as St. Paul says.

2 Timothy 2:2 And what you heard from me through many witnesses entrust to faithful people who will have the ability to teach others as well.

2 Thess 2:15 Therefore, brothers, stand firm and hold fast to the traditions that you were taught, either by an oral statement or by a letter of ours.

Catholics hold to the Word of God in Scripture AND Tradition as St. Paul instructs us to.
 
Your question diverts from the thread. The thread is about the apostolic succession debate between Steve and Barry. Steve’s rebuttal to Barry’s opening statement is premised on the notion that “[Jesus] [made] His promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?” That has six elements. You divert to an inquiry whether statements by Jesus can be found elsewhere. I reponded that I’d accept any authoritative source. Were I to ask them, I’d ask:

Dear Steve and Barry,

I saw on the Non-Catholic Religions sub-forum at Catholic Answers Forums a link to and discussion about the debate the two of you carried on, posted at Transporter Info Services, titled “Who Holds the Keys? (Pope or Prophet).” It’s unfortunate that the bickering that goes on a CAF does not follow the shining example you two set in your dialogue, even if the CAF readers happen to be directed to your debate and asked to comment on it. What you two do, regrettably, does not rub off on many posters at CAF, who have axes to grind and seemingly cannot stay on topic.

I was wondering if the two of you might address one question that comes to mind from my reading of your interchange. In your (Steve’s) rebuttal to Barry Bickmore’s opening statement, you set forth the following premise:

“[D]id He [Jesus] keep His promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?”

(See transporter.com/Mormonism/smc_rebut.html, end of first paragraph.)

In my reading of that stated premise, you intimate six elements: (1) Jesus speaks; (2) Jesus’ statement(s) constitute(s) a promise; (3) it is “His Church” about which he makes the promise; (4) the promise is one by which he promises to be “with” his Church; (5) the promise is to be with His Church “until the end of time”; and (6) the promise to be with His Church until the end of time is one that is to be accomplished “through apostolic succession.”

In your rebuttal, you provide an exposition on how the Holy Roman Apostolic Catholic Church is apostolic. And in that exposition, you draw upon a New Testament source to advance the first, second, third, fourth, fifth, and sixth elements of your premise. You write, “Jesus commissioned His disciples to preach the gospel and make disciples of all nations. He promised that He would be with them always, to the close of the age (Matthew 28:18-20).”

The full text of Matthew 28:18-20 reads (Revised Standard Version (RSV), Catholic Edition):

And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, to the close of the age.”

Five of the six elements of your premise are met by that scripture. We can accept that it records a statement by Jesus (element 1). We can accept that it records a “promise” (because what Jesus says he will do, he will do and thus anything he says he will do can be construed as a promise) (element 2). We can accept that it records a promise He made that He will be with “His Church,” for his disciples to whom He made the statement are “His Church” (element 3). We can accept that it records a promise to be “with” His Church, for that is the preposition used in the passage (element 4). We can accept that it is a promise to be with His Church “until the end of time” because that is the meaning of the phrase “to the close of the age” (element 5).

But one of course needs more than that one passage of scripture in order to advance as a six-element premise that Jesus made a “promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession.” Matthew 28:18-20 is silent on the concept of “apostolic succession,” which is part and parcel of your premise and upon which you build your argument.

Can either of you discern either from that one passage or from any other passage (alone or in connection with any other passage, including Matthew 28:18-20) any notion that Jesus, in making his promise to be with His Church to the close of the age, promised to do so through “apostolic succession”? From a plain reading of the words (whether in English or Greek), the passage you cite seems to say nothing at all about “apostolic succession.” For that concept, you need to seek recourse elsewhere. For one apostle to succeed another, the first must in some way stop functioning as such and the second must somehow succeed to the position of the first. That one passage does not even hint at such a notion.

The calling of Matthias, of course, is what you (Barry) rely on to speak to the issue of apostolic succession. But where is there scriptural authority to justify the conclusion that that one action (the act of Matthias succeeding Judas) constitutes an example of Jesus fulfilling some sort of promise to use that vehicle (apostolic succession) as the means by which he would be with His Church to the close of the age. True, He promised to be with His Church to the close of the age and true Mathias succeeded Judas, but what justifies stating a premise that “[Jesus] [made] His promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession”?

In short, whether you cite a New Testament passage or some other authoritative source, what scriptural or other source authoritatively meets the following criteria:
  1. It must be Jesus who speaks;
  2. Jesus’ statement(s) must constitute a promise;
  3. It must be “His Church” about which he makes the promise;
  4. The promise must be one by which he promises to be “with” his Church;
  5. It must be a promise to be with His Church “until the end of time”; and
  6. The promise of being with His Church until the end of time must be one that he states will be fulfilled “through apostolic succession.”
 
Stephen -

My question addresses one of your 6 “must haves” in your reply. Thereby it is direct and relevant. 👍

A OR B

:confused:
 
Stephen -

My question addresses one of your 6 “must haves” in your reply. Thereby it is direct and relevant. 👍

A OR B

:confused:
What you are failing to realize is that I agree with you. Your side argument is with Steve Clifford, the Catholic apologist, not with me. **He **is the one who said Jesus made such a promise. I’m simply inviting a closer look at all six elements of **his **assertion (**his **premise).

I agree with you that the truth can be set forth in sources beyond what Jesus spoke. I did not say that truth is limited to what Jesus spoke. I am simply looking at the six elements of the premise that was advanced by the Roman Catholic apologist, Steve Clifford, in **his **debate piece that this thread is all about. Of Jesus, it is Clifford who asks, “[D]id He [Jesus] keep His promise to be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?” (See transporter.com/Mormonism/smc_rebut.html, end of first paragraph.)

When Steve Clifford asks us whether Jesus kept his promise he necessarily invokes the notion that Jesus made a promise to that effect. I frankly do not care whether it was Jesus or anyone else authoritative (be it Isaiah or Peter) who made such a promise. All that I have asked is for people to identify what textual source (or any source) manifests that such a promise was made, whether by Jesus or anyone else, that authoritatively constitutes such a promise.

Let me be clear. If you read carefully what I have written, the issue does not at all turn on the side issue you are concerned with. Whether such a promise was made by Isaiah or Jesus or Peter, that is not the issue. The issue is whether the promise authoritatively has ever been made. Steve Clifford says yes (of course he does, because it is his stated premise) and **he **says that Jesus made it. He cites Matthew 28:18-20. And I agree with him to this extent: Matthew 28:18-20 does indeed satisfy **all **of the first **five **of the six elements of **his **(Steve Clifford’s) premise (including the one you are hung up on). If Steve Clifford had worded his premise as follows, then it would not have included the first of the six elements (i.e., that Jesus himself made the promise): “Has there been kept the promise that Jesus would be with His Church until the end of time through apostolic succession?” Formulated thus (in the passive voice), the first element would be simply that someone (be it Jesus or anyone else) made such a promise.

But as Clifford formulated it, there are six elements, on the first one of which you have a problem of some sort, which actually is not at all determinative of the issue at hand. You will note that it’s really only the sixth element that is the stickler (not the first one, which is what you are concerned about).

That one passage of scripture (Matthew 28:18-20), satisfies **five **of the six elements of Steve Clifford’s premise, but **not **the sixth. It records a statement by Jesus (element 1); it records a “promise” by Jesus (because what Jesus says he will do, he will do and thus anything he says he will do can be construed as a promise) (element 2); it records a promise He made that He will be with “His Church,” for his disciples to whom He made the statement are “His Church” (element 3); it records a promise to be “with” His Church, for that is the preposition used in the passage (element 4); and it is a promise to be with His Church “until the end of time” because that is the meaning of the phrase “to the close of the age” (element 5).

But Matthew 28:18-20 is silent on the concept of “apostolic succession,” which is part and parcel of – the sixth element of – Steve Clifford’s premise, the premise upon which he builds his argument.

I’m simply asking anyone to identify any authoritative source that shows that in making a promise that Jesus would be with His Church until the end of time Jesus (or anyone else authoritative) promised it would be accomplished through “apostolic succession.” Matthew 28:18-20 does not do that. What does? We know that apostolic succession began (with Matthias replacing Judas); but who, if anyone, authoritatively states such apostolic succession would continue uninterrupted?
 
What you are failing to realize is that I agree with you. Your side argument is with Steve Clifford, the Catholic apologist, not with me. **He **is the one who said Jesus made such a promise. I’m simply inviting a closer look at all six elements of **his **assertion (**his **premise).
Are you claiming the Steve Clifford claims Jesus told him (Steve Clifford) personally that Christ would be with his (Jesus’) Church through apostolic succession?
 
The calling of Matthias, of course, is what you (Barry) rely on to speak to the issue of apostolic succession. But where is there scriptural authority to justify the conclusion that that one action (the act of Matthias succeeding Judas) constitutes an example of Jesus fulfilling some sort of promise to use that vehicle (apostolic succession) as the means by which he would be with His Church to the close of the age.
It seems Mormon’s also believe in
apostolic succession. Are you claiming that Barry claims Jesus told him (Barry) personally that Christ would be with his (Jesus’) Church through apostolic succession?
 
Most people cite the Bible as the one historical source for statements made by Jesus to his apostles in the Holy Land during his lifetime. If you want to rely on some non-canonical New Testament apocryphal source (such as the Gospel of Thomas [here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Thomas]
or the Gospel According to the Hebrews [here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Hebrews], or the like), feel free to do so.

Catholics don’t accept gnostic writings as authoritative. We do accept the writings of the Church Fathers as authoritative.

“Through countryside and city [the apostles] preached, and they appointed their earliest converts, testing them by the Spirit, to be the bishops and deacons of future believers. Nor was this a novelty, for bishops and deacons had been written about a long time earlier. . . . Our apostles knew through our Lord Jesus Christ that there would be strife for the office of bishop. For this reason, therefore, having received perfect foreknowledge, they appointed those who have already been mentioned and afterwards added the further provision that, if they should die, other approved men should succeed to their ministry” (Letter to the Corinthians 42:4–5, 44:1–3 [A.D. 80]).

St. Clement was addressing the church in Corinth, at a time when a group of people had deposed their bishop. In his rebuke of their action, he explains to them apostolic succession and authority. This letter was written to the church in Corinth, from Rome, in the 2nd century.

Irenaeus wrote against heresies towards the end of the 2nd century. One of his tests to recognize a heresy, as apposed to authentic Church teaching, is whether or not the teaching is apostolic. That is, it is a teaching that had been handed on by the apostles, through their successors? Or, is it a teaching that is innovative and outside of apostolic succession? The particular heresies he wrote against, included gnosticism.

Tertullian, also wrote against heresies, towards the beginning of the 3rd century. He imparts the same message as had been given before. The Church is apostolic, that is, its teaching and authority comes from the Apostles who handed it on to their successors, the bishops.

There are more. Catholic Answers has a tract, catholic.com/tracts/apostolic-succession which you may find useful.

But I do have to wonder how you think the teachings of the Apostles would be handed on, if not through the men they had ordained and designated?
 
But I do have to wonder how you think the teachings of the Apostles would be handed on, if not through the men they had ordained and designated?
That was the problem. Jesus, being God, was too short sighted to realize that his Church would fail after the death of the last Apostle (even though he has never died, according to Mormon lore) so no provision was made for it to continue. Big OOOPS there! :eek: The Apostles simply forgot to ordain more Apostles, and there ya go. What’s so hard to understand? :rolleyes:
 
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