J
jas84173
Guest
I’ve come to realize a huge paradox in the apostasy that some groups such as Mormons and Jehovah’s Witnesses claimed occurred following the death of the last Apostle John. I have tried asking and they can’t even seem to grasp the question or answer it with riddles that make no sense.
The paradox goes like this. If there was an apostasy, and the Church lost its priestly authority on earth, why in that case should any of these groups accept the Canon of the New Testament which was not formally set until 397 A.D.? Prior to this there was some consensus of which books were Inspired and most of the books in our New Testament were always accepted as genuine. But not all. Some books barely made the Canon of the New Testament and some books barely missed it. Eusebius in his Church History calls them “The antilegomena” or “disputed writings” were widely read in the Early Church and included the Epistle of James, the Epistle of Jude, 2 Peter, 2 and 3 John, the Book of Revelation, the Gospel of the Hebrews, the Epistle to the Hebrews, the Apocalypse of Peter, the Acts of Paul, the Shepherd of Hermas, the Epistle of Barnabas and the Didache. The term “disputed” should therefore not be misunderstood to mean “false” or “heretical.” There was disagreement in the Early Church on whether or not the respective texts deserved canonical status.
Many other “texts” floated around but were never taken as genuine or seriously. The list is vast and anyone who knows New Testament Apocrypha knows that.
So, even if I were to agree with this apostasy theory, why then would I agree on the Canon of scripture the Church, trinitarian formula, chose in the late fourth century? If there was an apostasy wouldn’t they be wrong? How could they possibly have gotten it right? I’d actually have more respect for these groups who claim there was an apostasy if they went back and used a different list for the New Testament. It’s a paradox. If you believe the New Testament Canon which all of these groups do use , it seems they accept the Churches authority to defining what was the inspired word of God. This is a paradox and I am shocked no-one seems to point this out.
The paradox goes like this. If there was an apostasy, and the Church lost its priestly authority on earth, why in that case should any of these groups accept the Canon of the New Testament which was not formally set until 397 A.D.? Prior to this there was some consensus of which books were Inspired and most of the books in our New Testament were always accepted as genuine. But not all. Some books barely made the Canon of the New Testament and some books barely missed it. Eusebius in his Church History calls them “The antilegomena” or “disputed writings” were widely read in the Early Church and included the Epistle of James, the Epistle of Jude, 2 Peter, 2 and 3 John, the Book of Revelation, the Gospel of the Hebrews, the Epistle to the Hebrews, the Apocalypse of Peter, the Acts of Paul, the Shepherd of Hermas, the Epistle of Barnabas and the Didache. The term “disputed” should therefore not be misunderstood to mean “false” or “heretical.” There was disagreement in the Early Church on whether or not the respective texts deserved canonical status.
Many other “texts” floated around but were never taken as genuine or seriously. The list is vast and anyone who knows New Testament Apocrypha knows that.
So, even if I were to agree with this apostasy theory, why then would I agree on the Canon of scripture the Church, trinitarian formula, chose in the late fourth century? If there was an apostasy wouldn’t they be wrong? How could they possibly have gotten it right? I’d actually have more respect for these groups who claim there was an apostasy if they went back and used a different list for the New Testament. It’s a paradox. If you believe the New Testament Canon which all of these groups do use , it seems they accept the Churches authority to defining what was the inspired word of God. This is a paradox and I am shocked no-one seems to point this out.