A philosophical problem of the Big Bang theory

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IF anything in the universe had been slightly off this universe wouldn’t exist …
Your “anything” is far too general. For some things being outside a particular range of values, then yes. But variation within that range would not have such dire effects. For other things than changing them would have essentially zero impact.

I assume you are talking about the initial conditions at the Big Bang. Moving a single grain of sand on the 13th moon pf planet Atenonoc in the Andromeda galaxy is not going to have a large impact.
 
Moving a single grain of sand on the 13th moon pf planet Atenonoc in the Andromeda galaxy is not going to have a large impact.
Actually, according to the butterfly effect, it could be.
 
We are talking about infinite regresses in causal series. Of course infinite regresses are possible in mathematical series.
Thank you for such a clear example of the “No True Scotsman” logical fallacy.

It is a relatively easy job to rework the Peano axioms to make the integers a causal series:
  • -∞ is an integer.
  • For every integer i, S(i) is also an integer.
  • For every integer i, S(i) = -∞ is false.
Each integer, except -∞, is caused by applying the Successor, S(), operation to its predecessor.
 
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Freddy:
Cyclical. This universe causes the next one. Rinse and repeat.
This would cause an infinite regress, wich is logically impossible.
Depends. St. Thomas Aquinas held that an infinite regress like this could not be ruled out. However, some (not all) Thomists who came after him disagree, and certainly the popular Kalam Cosmological Argument makes an argument that it’s impossible.
 
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What about causal series in the physical world (wich is what I was talking about, in the case it wasn’t clear )?
 
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actual infinites are impossible in the physical world, because everything that is physical is, at least potentially, divisible - that is, we could always, at least potentially, take away something and still have something.
There are two “worlds” that you are discussing, the physical world and a philosophic model of that world.

In the model, the principle you articulate is accurate, things can always get smaller. There are some constraints, articulated in Zeno’s paradoxes

In the physical world, that is not true. There are limits to how small things can get. In some quantum cases there are Planck limits. There is nothing measureable shorter than the Planck length for instance. The Planck length is indistinguishable from reaching an “infinitesimal.”

Conceptually we can keep going smaller, but physically, this is as small as we can measure. There is no infinite regress.
 
There are two “worlds” that you are discussing, the physical world and a philosophic model of that world.

In the model, the principle you articulate is accurate, things can always get smaller. There are some constraints, articulated in Zeno’s paradoxes

In the physical world, that is not true. There are limits to how small things can get. In some quantum cases there are Planck limits. There is nothing measureable shorter than the Planck length for instance. The Planck length is indistinguishable from reaching an “infinitesimal.”

Conceptually we can keep going smaller, but physically, this is as small as we can measure. There is no infinite regress.
I think there’s a difference between something potentially divisible, but actually indivisible, and something potentially and actually divisible. The fact that we can’t actually divide quanta doesn’t mean that they aren’t potentially divisible. Every physical being is potentially divisible because it is extended. Unextended point particles are an idealization used in order to give simpler, but not strictly accurate, descriptions.
 
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I think you have it , Rossum. Getting down that small takes us into a different model of reality, one we are only beginning to understand.
 
We are talking about infinite regresses in causal series.
Exactly, so you’re talking about a very specific type of series…a temporal series. But what about a series that isn’t temporal? In which the cause doesn’t precede the effect. In fact, any theory that posits the existence of God is just such an atemporal series. Because the “first” cause…God, doesn’t precede the first effect, but is instead cotemporal with it.

All that the skeptic needs to do, is to posit the exact same type of first cause as the theist does, an atemporal one. The skeptic then just needs to disagree about what that cause looks like.
 
I think there’s a difference between something potentially divisible, but actually indivisible, and something potentially and actually divisible.
I thought that was what I said. In the model, everything is potentially divisible as per the principle in your first note.

In the physical world, the planck length is indivisible. Your principle does not apply. There is no infinite regress, but the distance is indistinguishable from 0, or whatever the limit is.
Unextended point particles are an idealization used in order to give simpler, but not strictly accurate, descriptions.
Not strictly accurate because they rely on a philosophical infinite regress instead of physical measurement.
 
There is no infinite regress, but the distance is indistinguishable from 0, or whatever the limit is.
It is indistinguishable from 0 in our capacity of measure it. But it isn’t actually 0. Again, when we talk about unextended point particles we are talking about an idealization that man conventionally established in order to simplify the epistemological enterprise.
 
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All that the skeptic needs to do, is to posit the exact same type of first cause as the theist does, an atemporal one. The skeptic then just needs to disagree about what that cause looks like.
So if the skeptic and the theist are talking about the same “first” cause, then why should we accept the skeptic’s description of a “natural” first cause over the theist’s description of a “supernatural” first cause…simple…because it makes more sense…and is more in keeping with our observations of reality.

If Aquinas were alive today, and if he really was as smart as some people seem to think he was, then he would no doubt have a completely different concept of “God”.
 
It is indistinguishable from 0 in our capacity of measure it. But it isn’t actually 0.
The Planck length is based on a fundamental constant like c. It has nothing to do with our measuring capabilities and whether they can be improved. It is built into the physical world.
when we talk about unextended point particles we are talking about an idealization that man conventionally established in order to simplify the epistemological enterprise.
That is to say, they are a part of the philosophical model of reality, not the actual physical world.

Newer philosophical models that incorporate quantum mechanics do not use physically unreal infinities like infinite reductions. Planck’s constant defines a number of measurements that define “the earliest stage of the Big Bang” as something other than. “an infinitely small point of seemingly infinite density.”
the Planck epoch or Planck era is the earliest stage of the Big Bang, before the time passed was equal to the Planck time, t subP, or approximately 10^−43 seconds.
Wikipedia
 
The Planck length is based on a fundamental constant like c . It has nothing to do with our measuring capabilities and whether they can be improved. It is built into the physical world.
But it’s still extended, wich means that it is composed of parts, even thought they can’t actually subsist on their own (if they did, reality wouldn’t be the way it is )
 
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it would be more accurate to say that the extention of a singularity tends asymptotically to infinitesimal - that is, is always approaching infinitesimal without ever reaching it.
This is not true of the Big Bang theory. Regress is not infinite, but stops at the Planck epoch. It does reach the smallest possible length time etc. The problem you proposed in your original note has been addressed. There is no infinite regress.

You can suppose there is an infinite regress past the Planck limits. Big Bang theory says nothing about what happens at times earlier than the Planck time or distances smaller than the Planck length. That just reinserts infinities into the mix, giving you your problem again. But you might find something.
 
Cyclical. This universe causes the next one. Rinse and repeat.
Just to clarify. It’s very likely that a cyclical universe would not involve an infinite regress, because each iteration would arise from what would appear to be the very same cause. It may actually be a misnomer to refer to it as being cyclical, because if no information passed from one iteration to the next, then there would be no discernible causal order between each iteration.

Every iteration would appear to exist at the exact same time, and with the exact same cause. It would look like the MWI.
 
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LeonardDeNoblac:
This would cause an infinite regress, wich is logically impossible.
Why? The integer numbers are an infinite regress back to minus infinity yet they are far from logically impossible. The real numbers r in {r: 0.0 < r <= 1.0} are an infinite regress back towards, but never quite reaching, 0.0. Again, real numbers are not logically impossible.
I am not a defender of the Kalam Cosmological Argument, but to play devil’s advocate, its defenders make a distinction between (1) the abstract mathematical concepts and applications of infinity and (2) what they call an actual infinity existing in an actual or physical/natural sense, whether all at once or over time. A common analogy they use is called “Hilbert’s Hotel.” Then the analogy is applied to the age of the universe. The claim is that actual infinities lead to nonsense paradoxes and so can’t actually exist.

I haven’t presented the Hilbert’s Hotel examplle here because I’m on my phone and lazy, but it should be easy to look up in context or maybe someone else will do my work for me and put it here. 😅
 
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Wesrock:
I am not a defender of the Kalam Cosmological Argument
Are you a defender of the Five Ways of Saint Thomas Aquinas? They are actually very similar.
I am a defender of the Five Ways and other arguments that follow similarly. It should be noted, however, that St. Thomas basically rejects a form of the KCA in the Summa Theologica (ST I:I Q46 A2) as he did not think it can be shown that an infinite regress in an accidentally ordered series is illogical. It’s why none of his Ways demonstrate that the universe has a beginning, nor do any of his Ways assume a beginning as a premise, and why he explicitly says that a beginning to the universe cannot be demonstrated from reason alone.

The difference between the KCA and the Ways is that the KCA focuses on the infinite regress of what we call an accidentally ordered causal series (also ordered per accidens or linearly ordered). The Ways on the other hand focus on and reject the possibility of of an essentially ordered causal series (also called ordered per se or hierarchical ordered series).
 
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