A Proof For Gods Existence By M.O.M

  • Thread starter Thread starter MindOverMatter
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
M

MindOverMatter

Guest
The following argument has been split into two posts due to restrictions of length.
If you want to make a rebuttal, quote my post argument for argument and give and intelligent reply. If you don’t agree that necessary truth exists and applies to to existence, that’s a debate for another thread. I would rather you did not reply as this argument assumes that logic can be applied to reality and God. Also, i will appreciate any feed back and support my Christian brothers can give.

A Logical Proof For Gods Existence.***

1. Out of nothing comes nothing

2. Therefore nothing cannot precede that which is existing and changing

3. Potentiality cannot precede existence, since potentiality or possibility in nature can only become actual in relation to something’s form or its attributable ability to cause a particular quality either by its own nature or accidental relationship with some other natural event; and this is to say that potentiality cannot proceed from nothing and is not being by itself.

4. Anything that is changing, extends in to a future that potentially exists but does not exist now, and is preceded by a past that at one time potentially existed. Everything that is physical exists in relation to the past no matter what kind of nature it is. Therefore potentiality infinitely precedes that which is changing since its changing and being is a product of potential; and the future potential or possibility of anything has to be grounded in a being. It cannot come from nothing. Because change cannot come from nothing, every event becomes a contingent effect. All changing events are contingent in so far as they do not have in themselves the explanation for why change actually exists. Every precedent effect is only a cause because it is changing. It does not cause the existence of change. This is not just a problem of motion or change, it is also a problem efficient existence, since all past event at one time did not exist; and this is true regardless of whether one claims that the past is infinite or finite.

5. Therefore there is a timeless act and being at the root of change, and it is a necessary being that is not apart of that which is changing.

6. A timeless act and being cannot come from nothing and cannot give effect accidentally or arbitrarily. Neither can such an act proceed or precede itself. It is not dynamic. It cannot arise from potentiality or possibility and thus its action is purely a product of its own nature and nothing else.

7. A possible future might exist necessarily because of its cause, but it is not a necessary being by itself because it is reliant on past effects for its existence. That is to say it is only necessary because there happens to be a chain of events that leads to it.

8. Because a necessary being cannot proceed in act, such a being has to be pure actuality. Its act has to be a fundamental fact of its existence. It also has to be a perfect existence in order to explain that which is possible/that which is changing. It has to be existence by nature, rather than by possibility, since the only thing that can logically exist necessarily is that which is existence by nature. A being that gains in potential existence, does not exist of its own accord since it is gaining in something it did not have before. A perfect existence cannot have a past or a potential future because it cannot fail to exist. Therefore all potential realities have to exist within existence. They become real only because they participate in that which eternally real or true. A being that is imperfect in anyway can change or possibly not exist. Possibility cannot precede existence, but rather possibility or potentiality is the eternal expression of a changeless existence. Given this fact, it cannot be said that existence shares the same nature as that which is changing. Therefore necessary existence is non-physical.

9. All Physical entities have an effect because they’re changing; they are proceeding in to a future through which they can express their attributes. They either begin to exist because of a precedent cause or because a particular form is as such that it activate a potential reality. A random event does not come from nothing but rather its behavior, however random, is a response to something’s existential form. Its random behavior is predictive of a particular form, that is to say that such events are still determined by existential laws and principles even though their effect cannot be known through the predictive outcome of a physical cause. They have a nature only because they exist, and their existence is determined by an “existential cause” which means its existence is due to that which exists necessarily and timelessly as demonstrated in paragraph number 8. Thus random events have a cause and have a nature that is random only because existence has given it that nature. Thus random events, or physical events in general, cannot be the ultimate cause of the universe or any of its physical laws or principles.

10. Through the preceding paragraphs I have established through the necessity of logic, and the universal experience of rational human beings, that a timeless cause exists, that this cause is non-physical, and that such a cause is existence by nature of being. Because the cause is non-physical, we cannot say that the universe ultimately exists because of some kind of physical necessity. Neither is energy responsible since its natural effect and existence is characterized by its dynamism and potentiality. This issue was dealt with especially in paragraphs 4, 8 and 9.

To be continued…
 
Continued…

11. There are only 3 kinds of causes. There are physical causes that are the effects of other causes. There are random causes that respond to the internal form of its nature and at the same time the external form of its existential environment; and this only means that it changes according to principles rather than because of a direct predictable and classical cause and effect sequence. There is also such a thing as a “personal cause”, which in general simply means that an effect has occurred because of a rational intention or expression of intellect. The first two causes, in terms of the universes existence, are ruled out necessarily by my arguments. Also, out of nothing comes nothing. So it has to be case that the necessary existence spoken of in paragraph 5 and 8 is an eternal expression of intellect. That is to say that the first cause has eternal knowledge of its self, and it has according to that eternal knowledge caused the universe and anything else that so happens to exist. It is an “intelligent cause”, although it is an intelligence that is wholly transcendent of what we can comprehend in our personal experience. Yet it is comprehensible in the fact that we share the common factor of self knowledge.

12. I have now shown good logical reasons to believe that there exists at least some of what is fundamentally understood as God. There is one more to consider before we move to the conclusion. Since God, as described by logical necessity, is the root of all creation, this means that God is the seat of all power. This is to say that there is no power outside of Gods creative will, and that God is the root of all the power that can logically exist in either God or can possibly exist in creation.

Conclusion: The preceding arguments are enough to prove that an intellect necessarily exists at the root of the universes existence. But it doesn’t tell us why a timeless personal existence would create a universe. Why would a timeless personal being or unmoved mover be moved to create anything? It cannot be an effect outside of itself, and neither can it be something that is non - personal, since necessary existence is and must be a wholly personal reality. This is true because existence and act are necessarily one in that which is the cause of time. Neither can it be said that God is compelled by something greater then God, for nothing is greater then God nothing exists outside of God that God desires. God is existence itself and thus transcends cause and effect relationships. If God creates, God necessarily gives everything and is given nothing. God is the cause of all potential natures and human desires and so it doesn’t seem reasonable to apply desire to God. What ever God is, he is this from all eternity. But maybe we can come to an understanding of why such a being acts by comprehending what it is that drives us and what fulfills us as “personal beings” whom have knowledge, since we are similar to God in the respect of being personal and having knowledge.

While it is true that we act freely, we also act for a determined end which is absolute freedom. But this not just any kind of arbitrary freedom that we act for. Rational people act for an ontological freedom, i.e., freedom from death, freedom from suffering, freedom to express ones personal nature. In desiring these things some of us come to realise that selfishness takes away allot of our freedoms and that love is the absolute principle of a better world, a life in which a greater good can be expressed. Rational people realize that if we are going to express our true potential as a free human race and make a world in which each one of our children will thrive with the least affliction possible, then we have to love and make sacrifices for that love; even though some of us refuse to do so. We act for the love of our children; the love of ourselves. In this we have discovered that love is the principle of creativity and most importantly it is that which is most fulfilling of our personal nature. Perhaps, there is something in this that will allow us to understand why a timeless personal being would act; i.e. because God loves. But this alone is not enough, since before creation there is nothing to love and neither does creation have any reality, meaning or quality that God has not given it. God is not in a situation that compels God to realize the value of love; But rather God eternally creates situations. Thus we must go a step further and say that God is pure love in nature and will; and thus we can understand Gods creative and timeless act. We can understand why existence is timelessly sharing itself.
 
Very nice M.O.M!🙂

It feels like the logic to prove God doesn’t exist falls short. It just makes no logical sense. At the very least atheists, who are totally unbiased and logic-based (a rarity!) can admit that there must be a cause of the universe, outside of time and matter.
 
I think you have problems with (11).

You assert that there are only 3 types of causes;
  1. Physical
  2. Random
  3. Intelligence
By what means do you declare that there are only these 3 types?

Btw, “Random” doesn’t actually exist at all. It is merely an ideal concept with no potential of existence. But that would leave you with merely the 2, “Physical” and “Intelligent”. Those don’t form any kind of logical set that I can see. They are apples and thumb-tacks.

A more proper set would be;
  1. Physical
  2. Non-physical
  3. Both and/or nether as a combination.
Or you could say;
  1. Intelligent
  2. Non-intelligent
  3. Both and/or neither as a combination.
If you want to include both concern types, then you have 6 possibilities. :o

Or if you consider a combination, since the concerns are of different nature, you actually have 3^2 or 9 possibilities to resolve. :o
 
The Christian faith presupposes certain truths of reason and of history. Without these it cannot make sense and its theology cannot take root. The first of these is that the Christian faith presupposes that there is a God: it’s of little use telling people that Jesus is the Son of God if they do not believe in God in the first place. Of course, the concept of God which a pagan possesses will need to be modified in the light of the account of God offered in the Church’s preaching. So for many atheists were they to wish to embrace the Church, they arrive at the scene without even the presuppositions of faith.

Within the Church there is no general consensus among Catholic writers as to the best way of establishing the existence of God, the supreme presupposition of our faith. To complicate matters more, The First Vatican Council, in the course of the document Del Filius declared “The one and true God, our Creator and Lord, can be known through the creation by the natural light of human reason.” The council’s teaching is that images of the divine found in natural religion in all cultures can be modified or purified so as to produce a concept of God as the Creator Lord, the source of nature and history alike. At this point our hypothetical atheist (ever snarky) is probably thinking: “Ah, so there is a God and it can be proved by human reason, but nobody has found Him yet. Nice.”

The biblical materials for a concept of God do not organize themselves. They do not automatically arrange themselves into a satisfactory form. They achieve that form only when the human mind, seeking to understand its own faith, begins to work on them and to set them out in more intelligible ways. To organize the biblical materials, we soon find that we need to draw on such philosophical categories as good and evil, freedom and necessity, person and nature, mind and will, essence and existence, being and knowing. Of course, the application of these notions to God is an attempt to speak of what lies beyond the world within terms drawn from this world, and so is only justified if we always add a postscript to that effect…

You may wish to continue reading here:

payingattentiontothesky.com/2009/09/09/approaches-to-god%e2%80%99s-existence/

I like the expression “Approaches to God’s Existence” because you touch more bases and you avoid the idea that faith is an intellectual construct. Atheists will read my offering while picking yours apart from the get-go. You have to score to win the game…

dj
 
Atheists will read my offering while picking yours apart from the get-go. You have to score to win the game…

dj
I think “picking apart” is the point on this kind of forum. The challenge is to come up with something that can be picked apart “least”. But I agree, “to win the game”, one must indeed score. 😃
 
OK.
Huh? For something to exist it must possibly exist - that has to be prior to its actual existence.
Ordinarily i would agree with you, but you are not understanding the context in which i am expressing certain words; and perhaps that’s my fault for not being clear. I should not expect people to understand what i write just because it appears so clear and simple to me. Let me clarify.

In order for something to begin to exist, it must have the possibility and potential to exist; but “metaphysically speaking” potentiality does not precede being as an act. That is to say that potentiality does not precede or transcend “reality”. All potentiality for change and being is rooted in being/existence/reality. It doesn’t come out of nothing.
So? It doesn’t proceed from nothing and is not being by itself - that doesn’t prove it can’t precede existence.
You do not understand what i mean by existence. Potentiality can certainly precede a potential being but only so long as it is within the frame work of already existing entities. It cannot come out of nothing. All potentiality must therefore be rooted in that which exists.
Indeed it must precede existence, otherwise you are positing the existence of an impossible entity!
“Being” or beings must exist before a thing can potentially begin to exist. There are two kinds of “before”. There is the scientific kind in the sense of that which precedes “in time”. But there is also the metaphysical kind such as that which precedes all time in respect of the hierarchy of ontological beings. But this does not mean that it exists in a past before time; but rather it “transcends time” existing apart from it metaphysically and causes time/change in the timeless instant of its reality. This has to be true, since potentiality cannot possibly exist before the entirety of reality. If it could, this would be a breakdown in logic, since it would be coming out of nothing.
Only if you assume an infinity of time. In a temporally finite universe there is no time before t = 0 and hence there is no “past” to precede that point.
This is a problem to do with semantics. Of course there is no time before t = 0, but that doesn’t mean that all beings must exist in time, or that time cannot proceed from a necessary being, and neither does it change the fact that change began to exist at t=0. Either the potentiality for change came out of nothing at t=0 or that which changes is not the only reality that exists.
Argument by assertion. Assumes an infinity of time.
No it does not. Existence must exist before there can be such a thing as time. If change began to exist, if change is finite, then the potentiality for change has to be rooted in a being that is not in time. It does not come out of nothing. I can certainly say that all potential events at one time did not exist because it is true that all past events are contingent on the existence of other past events, so on and so fourth. Thus all past events began to exist. “Time” doesn’t necessarily have anything to do with somethings existence. Time only corresponds to something that begins to exist or changes. Only a being that proceeds to change or is changing can be considered in context of potentiality or the possibility of existence. Please note, however, that when i talk of possibility here i was speaking of it in the context of what could possibly exist in the future; not “metaphysical possibility”.
 
The real trouble with this approach is that theism takes the existence of a god to be axiomatic - thus every use of logic and reason in a theistic context proceeds from this base assumption.

When one tries to justify or ‘prove’ this base assumption, one now meets the difficulties presented by the advance of scientific understanding of the universe. It’s no longer plausible to simply invoke God as an explanation for phenomena we don’t understand. Even if we have not nutted out the precise explanation for some aspect of the universe, it is not a great leap of faith to suppose that scientific inquiry will one day discern what is going on. Thus it becomes necessary to attempt a ‘proof’ of a god that cannot be verified in any tangible way, and explanations in this vein run the risk of sounding like postmodernist jargon; and it doesn’t actually tell us anything of value - it’s chasing after notions that have already been rendered obsolete.
 
The real trouble with this approach is that theism takes the existence of a god to be axiomatic - thus every use of logic and reason in a theistic context proceeds from this base assumption.
Not necessarily true. Some versions of theism say that God’s existence can’t be proven through reason - one just has to take it on faith. Now reason itself needs certain metaphysical assumptions or epistemologically basic beliefs to get off the ground and make reasonable arguments or discussions even possible. Possibly, God’s existence could be deductively proven given these assumptions.
When one tries to justify or ‘prove’ this base assumption, one now meets the difficulties presented by the advance of scientific understanding of the universe. It’s no longer plausible to simply invoke God as an explanation for phenomena we don’t understand. Even if we have not nutted out the precise explanation for some aspect of the universe, it is not a great leap of faith to suppose that scientific inquiry will one day discern what is going on. Thus it becomes necessary to attempt a ‘proof’ of a god that cannot be verified in any tangible way, and explanations in this vein run the risk of sounding like postmodernist jargon; and it doesn’t actually tell us anything of value - it’s chasing after notions that have already been rendered obsolete.
You’re confusing a deductive argument with an inductive inference. “God of the gaps” is a bad argument then and it is now. Since God can do whatever is logically possible, theism can never be disconfirmed empirically, and therefore, it can never be confirmed in an inductive sense either.
 
Ordinarily i would agree with you, but you are not understanding the context in which i am expressing certain words; and perhaps that’s my fault for not being clear. I should not expect people to understand what i write just because it appears so clear and simple to me. Let me clarify.

In order for something to begin to exist, it must have the possibility and potential to exist; but “metaphysically speaking” potentiality does not precede being as an act. That is to say that potentiality does not precede or transcend “reality”. All potentiality for change and being is rooted in being/existence/reality. It doesn’t come out of nothing.

You do not understand what i mean by existence. Potentiality can certainly precede a potential being but only so long as it is within the frame work of already existing entities. It cannot come out of nothing. All potentiality must therefore be rooted in that which exists.
All you’re saying here is that if nothing exists, nothing can possibly exist. That’s just a restatement of your first premise. But I agree with your first premise, so no problem.
“Being” or beings must exist before a thing can potentially begin to exist. There are two kinds of “before”. There is the scientific kind in the sense of that which precedes “in time”. But there is also the metaphysical kind such as that which precedes all time in respect of the hierarchy of ontological beings.
Nothing can “precede time” if time is a measure of change. If there’s no time, nothing can change.
But this does not mean that it exists in a past before time; but rather it “transcends time” existing apart from it metaphysically and causes time/change in the timeless instant of its reality. This has to be true, since potentiality cannot possibly exist before the entirety of reality. If it could, this would be a breakdown in logic, since it would be coming out of nothing.

No, one merely posits that the “entirety of reality” encompasses potentiality, as it should (obviously). Not exactly sure where you’re going here.
This is a problem to do with semantics. Of course there is no time before t = 0, but that doesn’t mean that all beings must exist in time,
What does “exist in time” or “not exist in time” really mean? Is what you really mean by this is that the concept of time is inapplicable to a completely unchanging being?
or that time cannot proceed from a necessary being, and neither does it change the fact that change began to exist at t=0. Either the potentiality for change came out of nothing at t=0 or that which changes is not the only reality that exists.

Certainly, change begins at t = 0. But there can’t be anything “before” that point for the potentiality for change to arise from by definition.
No it does not. Existence must exist before there can be such a thing as time.
But there can’t be such a thing as “before” time by definition!
If change began to exist, if change is finite, then the potentiality for change has to be rooted in a being that is not in time. It does not come out of nothing.
I think we have to clearly define what it means for something to “begin” to exist.

Actually all of this has to do with whether the concept of creation “ex nihilo” is really coherent, and what the meaning of time is. If God exists “outside of time”, then we can conceive of a universe in which God, and nothing else, even time, exists. But then if time doesn’t exist no change is possible, because time is a measure of change. Therefore the creation of the universe is impossible. Basically if nothing, except God, exists, there is no potentiality for change either. God can’t change, and “nothing” can’t change either. The only answer is that potentiality is simply logically necessary.
 
Not necessarily true. Some versions of theism say that God’s existence can’t be proven through reason - one just has to take it on faith. Now reason itself needs certain metaphysical assumptions or epistemologically basic beliefs to get off the ground and make reasonable arguments or discussions even possible. Possibly, God’s existence could be deductively proven given these assumptions.

You’re confusing a deductive argument with an inductive inference. “God of the gaps” is a bad argument then and it is now. Since God can do whatever is logically possible, theism can never be disconfirmed empirically, and therefore, it can never be confirmed in an inductive sense either.
I concede that agnostics (and - broadly speaking - many atheists, as well) are content with not knowing one way or another, and treating the god question as something that sits outside the realm of scientific inquiry. I can also appreciate how MoM’s long exposition can be a strengthening, affirming exercise for those who have faith - although I suspect it’s unlikely to convince someone who does not.
 
What I’m going to try to do is summarize the first part of the argument; there’s a lot of verbiage.
  1. Something must exist for there to be the possibility of change. Because, if nothing exists, nothing can possibly exist and therefore there is nothing to change. (1-3 in the OP).
  2. The possibility of change must exist prior to an actual change. (First part of 4.)
  3. All change is contingent and must have an explanation of why it occurs, and change events don’t contain in themselves their own explanation. (4.)
  4. Therefore, there must be a necessary, unchanging being to provide that explanation (5.) (I assume “timeless” means “unchanging” because I don’t know what else it can mean.)
1 and 2 are fine. 3 is basically the Principle of Sufficient Reason. So the question is whether the conclusion of 4 follows from the premises. There are actually two things being argued here: the unchanging nature of the being and the necessary nature.

What this seems to be saying is that because we see change, the possibility of change must be prior to it, and because that’s impossible without something existing, something must exist prior to the possibility of change, it must be impossible of changing and therefore timeless.

But it doesn’t make sense to say that something must exist prior to the possibility of change, because it is itself a change if the possibility of change changes from impossible to possible. But if instead logical priority is meant; namely, something existing entails the possibility of change, there is the possibility of change even if all beings are changing, as long as something exists.
 
The real trouble with this approach is that theism takes the existence of a god to be axiomatic - thus every use of logic and reason in a theistic context proceeds from this base assumption.

When one tries to justify or ‘prove’ this base assumption, one now meets the difficulties presented by the advance of scientific understanding of the universe. It’s no longer plausible to simply invoke God as an explanation for phenomena we don’t understand. Even if we have not nutted out the precise explanation for some aspect of the universe, it is not a great leap of faith to suppose that scientific inquiry will one day discern what is going on. Thus it becomes necessary to attempt a ‘proof’ of a god that cannot be verified in any tangible way, and explanations in this vein run the risk of sounding like postmodernist jargon; and it doesn’t actually tell us anything of value - it’s chasing after notions that have already been rendered obsolete.
Logic and necessary truth has been rendered obsolete? I don’t understand what you are talking about.
 
Certainly, change begins at t = 0. But there can’t be anything “before” that point for the potentiality for change to arise from by definition.
There can’t be any change before time. That does not equal to the idea that there can’t be any “being” before time, so long as you understand the word “before” in a hierarchical sense, rather then in the sense of change. To say first, does not necessarily mean first in time since time is a measure of changing beings, not “being”; and neither is it meaningless to say that a being transcends cause and effect relationships in time. For instance, one imperfect but meaningful analogy would be that there can be a timeless being, and then there can be changing beings extending from that timeless being, itself not apart of the changing set in the sense of being caused.
But there can’t be such a thing as “before” time by definition!
I think we have to clearly define what it means for something to “begin” to exist.
Before t=0, there was nothing “changing”. This is not synonymous to saying there was no “being”. After t=0 there is something changing, and that change begins from “0”.
No. Stick with my argument as i have presented it please.
universe in which God.
What do you mean by conceiving of a universe in which God exists? The word universe corresponds to physical reality does it not?
If God exists “outside of time”, then we can conceive of a universe in which God, and nothing else, even time, exists. But then if time doesn’t exist no change is possible, because time is a measure of change. Therefore the creation of the universe is impossible.
This assumes that a timeless being cannot cause change. Not necessarily, as my argument has made clear in the OP. I was not talking about the kind of act that exists in time which i will explain in response to your next argument which i have quoted below. In order for there to be change in the first place, there has to be a timeless (unchanging) act at the root of change; its a logical necessity. Obviously,such an act cannot be anything that is physical, since in order for these things to have an effect they must be changing; unless your willing to say that the possibility for change came out of complete nothing. Hence the necessity of a timeless act. Look to my OP for further reference.
Basically if nothing, except God, exists, there is no potentiality for change either. God can’t change, and “nothing” can’t change either. The only answer is that potentiality is simply logically necessary.
While i can certainly can see the difficulty in understanding how a timeless entity can have an effect in time, it is still the case that two logical necessary truths cannot contradict each other. Out of nothing comes nothing. To come out of nothing is not possible and so change is not logically necessary; its a logical fallacy to say that change necessarily begins from nothing. You assume that the only thing that can have an effect is that which is in motion. But if that is true then there cannot be a beginning to change, it has to be infinite change, since a timeless being is timeless. But an infinite time has just as much problems as finite time. However difficult we might find it to comprehend, both kinds of time have to accept a timeless reality as being the ultimate basis of their potential existence; or they must accept that it came out of nothing. A foundation of being has absolute logical authority.

I agree that a changing being like physical entities cannot logically have an effect in time. It seems to me that you are thinking of Gods actions in a similar manner. However; God is a completely immaterial perfect act. When we speak of “act” in relation to God we do not mean “motion” or “change”. God does not “change”; but rather God “willseternally according to his eternal and perfect nature. It is because God is perfect that he doesn’t need to change. I explained this in the OP.
 
1. Out of nothing comes nothing

2. Therefore nothing cannot precede that which is existing and changing
Doesn’t this indicate that you accept that there was no “beginning of the universe” before which was only “nothing”? It seems that you are getting distracted.

Logic will force the conclusion that the physical universe could never have had a beginning, with or without any God.
 
You begin with a mistake: the reification of “nothing”.
Are you saying that nothing exists? If so then there is no point in us having this discussion. To be fair, i did say in the OP that if you had issues with the connection between logically necessary truth and ontological reality, then you ought to make a new thread.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top