A Proof For Gods Existence By M.O.M

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What is the smallest duration of time, beyond which t=0 ?
If you can meaningfully speak of something proceeding from t=0, then we must admit that according to logic there is in fact, and necessarily so, a smallest amount after t=0. It is an ontological “1”, or rather, that which is immediately after zero. In other words, it is the additive quantity after zero. This is necessarily true.

If you don’t understand what i am saying, just say so. We can agree to disagree.
 
Very nice M.O.M!🙂

It feels like the logic to prove God doesn’t exist falls short. It just makes no logical sense. At the very least atheists, who are totally unbiased and logic-based (a rarity!) can admit that there must be a cause of the universe, outside of time and matter.
why would anyone “admit” this? I don’t think we can say there “must” be anything with any degree of certitude. I understand even if someone says a quantum fluctuation or whatever triggered the big bang, and the universe began from essentially nothing, we still have to imagine where that first “bit of nothing” came from. Physicists no longer say the idea of imagining time or energy existing before the big bang is erroneous. Most now believe something probably did exist before the big bang. What it is, where it came from, no one knows for sure. So when you use terms like “must” or assert a “necessity” it is just not factually compelling.

All the logical arguments in the world cannot prove god, because at the end of the day we just don’t know if energy or matter could have existed infinitely, whether or not whatever force put our universe into motion could be sentient, etc. The only “real” barameter we have to judge religion is an objective historical comparison with every other religion that’s come and gone throughout human history; and the claims and supporting evidence pertaining to each individual religion.
 
If you can meaningfully speak of something proceeding from t=0, then we must admit that according to logic there is in fact, and necessarily so, a smallest amount after t=0. It is an ontological “1”, or rather, that which is immediately after zero. In other words, it is the additive quantity after zero. This is necessarily true.

If you don’t understand what i am saying, just say so. We can agree to disagree.
Your argument does not stand because for any small amount of time larger than zero, I can give you one that is smaller still.
 
Your argument does not stand because for any small amount of time larger than zero, I can give you one that is smaller still.
You imagine this to be the case because you assume that conceptual amounts must exist ontologically. But it does not follow logically, since in order to proceed from zero, the number “one” has to be a finite duration away; otherwise you will never get there. It follows necessarily. Its logically impossible.
 
You imagine this to be the case because you assume that conceptual amounts must exist ontologically. But it does not follow logically, since in order to proceed from zero, the number “one” has to be a finite duration away; otherwise you will never get there. It follows necessarily. Its logically impossible.
No.
You give me a finite duration, and I can always give you a duration which is smaller.
 
No.
You give me a finite duration, and I can always give you a duration which is smaller.
You are ingnoring what i am saying; probably because you think that you are right nomatter what i say. I have already explained in the last couple of posts why this is has nothing to do with duration, and that an **actual infinite **is logically impossible in the context of a duration from one point to the next. That you can potentially or conceptually fraction something an indefinite number of times does not mean or neccesitate that you can achieve an “actual infinity” in terms of **actual fractions **or durations in the real world. There is a difference between a **potential infinity **and an actual infinity; and also there is a distinct difference in context in regards to fractioning something and measuring somethings duration. If you cannot face this fact or fail to understand my arguement, please just agree to disagree. I am just going by what logic metaphysically neccesitates.
 
You imagine this to be the case because you assume that conceptual amounts must exist ontologically. But it does not follow logically, since in order to proceed from zero, the number “one” has to be a finite duration away; otherwise you will never get there. It follows necessarily. Its logically impossible.
I majored in mathematics in College, and while I agree with what sidbrown is saying, you have proven your point with this statement.

Sid, explain how you will get to 1 from 0 if their exist smaller parts in between?

Name the Achilles Problem (was it Aristotle that posed it?) We have a race track 1 mile long. But Achilles is going to run it “half-way” at a time. So 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + … will he ever get to the finish line? No, because by your reasoning we can always divide by 2. From math, this is a classic example of sum of infinite series and if we could add to infinity, we would get 1.

I understand that Conceptually I can add an infinite number of terms, and find their exact sum.

I think I also understand what MOM is saying about ontological 1, namely the first thing after 0.
 
I majored in mathematics in College, and while I agree with what sidbrown is saying, you have proven your point with this statement.

Sid, explain how you will get to 1 from 0 if their exist smaller parts in between?

Name the Achilles Problem (was it Aristotle that posed it?) We have a race track 1 mile long. But Achilles is going to run it “half-way” at a time. So 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + … will he ever get to the finish line? No, because by your reasoning we can always divide by 2. From math, this is a classic example of sum of infinite series and if we could add to infinity, we would get 1.

I understand that Conceptually I can add an infinite number of terms, and find their exact sum.

I think I also understand what MOM is saying about ontological 1, namely the first thing after 0.
I think it is Zeno’'s paradox.
Anyway, there is no first real number after zero, becasue for any one that you give me, I can find one smaller.
And I don’t see why this would not hold for time intervals or durations, unless of course, you posit the existence of a Planck time of (Gh/c5)1/2, which equals approximately 10^-43 second. But this is usually done in spin foam theory which I don;t see as being credible since it involves a violation of the Lorentz symmetry.
 
I majored in mathematics in College, and while I agree with what sidbrown is saying, you have proven your point with this statement.

Sid, explain how you will get to 1 from 0 if their exist smaller parts in between?

Name the Achilles Problem (was it Aristotle that posed it?) We have a race track 1 mile long. But Achilles is going to run it “half-way” at a time. So 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + … will he ever get to the finish line? No, because by your reasoning we can always divide by 2. From math, this is a classic example of sum of infinite series and if we could add to infinity, we would get 1.

I understand that Conceptually I can add an infinite number of terms, and find their exact sum.

I think I also understand what MOM is saying about ontological 1, namely the first thing after 0.
Chessman

Your advice to Sid, doesn’t go far enough. As Sid recognized what we have here is the old argument between Zeno and Parmenides vs. Aristotle. The concepts in question then were infinity, infinitesimals, and continuity. Zeno’s paradoxes argue that if space is continuous, there can’t be motion because even after an infinite number of divisions there would still be that pesky infinitesimal left over. Aristotle won the argument because obviously there was motion and the continuity of space was intuitively obvious. Guess what? Aristotle used the same ‘potential infinity’ argument (he claimed ‘actual infinity did not exist’) that MOM is using; it was picked up by Thomas Aquinas so in a sense the dismissal of an ‘actual infinity’ became imbedded in Catholic philosophy. I suspect that this may be MOM’s reason for arguing his particular point. And you know what, they are correct relative to Sid’s argument. The set of rational numbers (ratios of integers, fractions) is only ‘potentially infinite’.

However, mathematicians overcame the problem of the infinitesimal through the use of limits. Newton and Leibniz made use of the infinitesimal factor ‘dx’ to develop calculus. But ‘dx’ is a sticky little bugger because it is big enough to divide by and small enough to ignore. This problem was refined, but not eliminated by Cauchy and Weierstrass using the epsilon/delta trick. It wasn’t until Dedekind rigorously defined the set of irrational numbers and Cantor showed that the set of irrationals has a greater cardinality (aleph-1) than the cardinality (aleph-0) of the set of rationals that it could be argued that space is continuous because it is composed of an ACTUAL infinity of points. The mathematical argument rests on the idea of denumerability (can be counted).The rationals are denumerable; the irrationals are not.

Sid should frame his argument around Aleph-1. Time, if assumed to be continuous, can be finite with respect to extension and infinite with respect to divisibility. However, there is no doubt in my mind, from previous discussions with MOM that he will not concede. He will continue to wield his ‘ontological one’ until hell freezes over in the same manner that Kronecker (a great mathematician in his own right), who is credited with the statement, “God made the integers, man made all the rest”, fought Cantor without concession. I understand MOM’s argument, but I think he is ruling out the idea that if you proceed with divisibility eventually you will arrive at a ‘point’. It could be a ‘point’ in time or a ‘point’ in space and since science in there persistent granulation of matter will eventually arrive at ‘points’ of space —what could ‘string’ or quarks be made of— we will find that matter is substantially spatial.

My suggestion: SID, ask MOM these questions: do you consider space to be real? If so, then do you consider space to be continuous? And if you believe space to be continuously real, do you accept the mathematical assumption that space is composed of points and every point can be represented by a number and for every number there is a point? If the answer is yes to all, then space is demonstrably both real and ACTUALLY infinite If answering no to any of the questions; then the alternative is my personal belief: namely that the space that gives dimensionality to our universe, without which there can be no objective reality, is discrete.

Yppop
 
Chessman

Your advice to Sid, doesn’t go far enough. As Sid recognized what we have here is the old argument between Zeno and Parmenides vs. Aristotle. The concepts in question then were infinity, infinitesimals, and continuity. Zeno’s paradoxes argue that if space is continuous, there can’t be motion because even after an infinite number of divisions there would still be that pesky infinitesimal left over. Aristotle won the argument because obviously there was motion and the continuity of space was intuitively obvious. Guess what? Aristotle used the same ‘potential infinity’ argument (he claimed ‘actual infinity did not exist’) that MOM is using; it was picked up by Thomas Aquinas so in a sense the dismissal of an ‘actual infinity’ became imbedded in Catholic philosophy. I suspect that this may be MOM’s reason for arguing his particular point. And you know what, they are correct relative to Sid’s argument. The set of rational numbers (ratios of integers, fractions) is only ‘potentially infinite’.

However, mathematicians overcame the problem of the infinitesimal through the use of limits. Newton and Leibniz made use of the infinitesimal factor ‘dx’ to develop calculus. But ‘dx’ is a sticky little bugger because it is big enough to divide by and small enough to ignore. This problem was refined, but not eliminated by Cauchy and Weierstrass using the epsilon/delta trick. It wasn’t until Dedekind rigorously defined the set of irrational numbers and Cantor showed that the set of irrationals has a greater cardinality (aleph-1) than the cardinality (aleph-0) of the set of rationals that it could be argued that space is continuous because it is composed of an ACTUAL infinity of points. The mathematical argument rests on the idea of denumerability (can be counted).The rationals are denumerable; the irrationals are not.

Sid should frame his argument around Aleph-1. Time, if assumed to be continuous, can be finite with respect to extension and infinite with respect to divisibility. However, there is no doubt in my mind, from previous discussions with MOM that he will not concede. He will continue to wield his ‘ontological one’ until hell freezes over in the same manner that Kronecker (a great mathematician in his own right), who is credited with the statement, “God made the integers, man made all the rest”, fought Cantor without concession. I understand MOM’s argument, but I think he is ruling out the idea that if you proceed with divisibility eventually you will arrive at a ‘point’. It could be a ‘point’ in time or a ‘point’ in space and since science in there persistent granulation of matter will eventually arrive at ‘points’ of space —what could ‘string’ or quarks be made of— we will find that matter is substantially spatial.

My suggestion: SID, ask MOM these questions: do you consider space to be real? If so, then do you consider space to be continuous? And if you believe space to be continuously real, do you accept the mathematical assumption that space is composed of points and every point can be represented by a number and for every number there is a point? If the answer is yes to all, then space is demonstrably both real and ACTUALLY infinite If answering no to any of the questions; then the alternative is my personal belief: namely that the space that gives dimensionality to our universe, without which there can be no objective reality, is discrete.

Yppop
Actually, I am not sure that the question is settled as yet because of the question of the Planck length.
 
Actually, I am not sure that the question is settled as yet because of the question of the Planck length.
The main problem is that you have no real understanding of how numbers legitimately relate to ontological quantities. You assume that if you can perceive something mathematically that therefore it necessarily applies to objective physical reality simply because we can apply numbers to it. Your study of mathematics is back to front. You ought to study metaphysics first, the study of being qua being, and then acquire an understanding of how mathematics relates to objective metaphysical truth as the ultimate foundation for understanding physical reality.
 
The main problem is that you have no real understanding of how numbers legitimately relate to ontological quantities. You assume that if you can perceive something mathematically that therefore it necessarily applies to objective physical reality simply because we can apply numbers to it. Your study of mathematics is back to front. You ought to study metaphysics first, the study of being qua being, and then acquire an understanding of how mathematics relates to objective metaphysical truth as the ultimate foundation for understanding physical reality.
Do you have any books you would recommend 😃
 
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