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Bishopite
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Actually, not at all.
The primacy of the church
Actually, not at all.
The primacy of the church
The “keys” - attributed in the New Testament only to Christ (Revelation 1:18; cf. 3:7) and to Peter - are symbols of supreme power and authority (cf. Isaias 22:22). Hence Peter’s primacy is one not merely of honor but of jurisdiction; his power is plenary (“whatsover”), being subordinated to no earthly authority, since the judgements which he passes “on earth” are forthwith ratified “in heaven.” The character of the power bestowed is indicated in the words “bind” and “loose.” The terminology is that of the Rabbinical schools. What was prohibited was said to be “bound”; what was ruled to be lawful was said to be “loosed.” In both cases an obligation in conscience was implied. Thus Peter was to hold authority before God over the members of Christ’s Church. Of this our Lord, forseeing the coming denial, was to remind him at the Last Supper: “Simon, Simon, behold Satan has desired to have you [plural], that he may sift you as wheat. But I have prayed for thee [singular], that thy faith fail not; and you, being once converted, confirm thy brethren.” (Luke 22:31-32) We may note the parallels: Satan hath desired you - the gates of hell; I have prayed for thee - I will build upon this rock; confirm thy brethren - Peter the stabilizing force in the apostolic college.Can you show me in Scripture where this phrase “keys to the kingdom” is defined?This is true. But then SCRIPTURE always demonstrates what that change is. We se it SCRIPTURALLY with Abraham and Jacob. Now I do see a change in Peter after the Lord personally ministers to him, but nothing at all in respect to assigning him “supremacy” or His “vicar” on earth These are human assertions, not Scriptural revelations.I did. I read it in Matt. 16:13, 15.
Apophasis, sorry I’ve not replied to you yet.Your opinion is correct. In order for Heisenburg’s point to be valid he must prove that those Protestant theologians also agree with the RC teaching of the supremacy of Peter and the unique Roman idea of divinely appointed “successors” to Peter. Otherwise it’s just simply information.
Randy’s post (#74) makes it seem unreasonable to call this a “Roman notion.”
Peace.
John
Gee, you seem to have forgotten to mention to your readers that the next “you” is singular…as in, “Blessed are YOU Simon son of Jonah…” Jesus gave the authority to lead the Church to Kepha (or Peter if you speak English) alone.If you want to read it for yourself it’s right there in Matt. 16:13. This is the context in which the whole subsequent conversation takes place. “Who do people say that the Son of Man is?” Then in verse fifteen He asks, “But who do you (pl.) say that I am?” It’s all about who Jesus is, not who Peter is, or, is to be.
Agreed. You certainly don’t want to read into the passage the idea that it is Peter’s faith, or his confession that Jesus is declaring the rock. This simply isn’t in the text. Good pick up there!Whenever you read something the brain must interpret. What I don’t do is read something INTO the text in order to form my interpretation.
You mean other than the fact that Matthew, Mark, Luke and John mention Peter 195 times…more than any other Apostle by far?The Roman notion that these passages in Matthew establish the supremacy of Peter is based only on assertion, not Scriptural interpretation. Can you show me anywhere in the N.T. where Peter makes this claim for himself? I see where “Popes” have made this claim for themselves, but can you show me where Peter himself ever acknowledged it? Can you show me where any of the other Apostles acknowledged, or submitted to, his alleged “supremacy?” I demonstrated in a previous post that Paul never did. Can you show me where the others did?
I have a question: Do you believe the Bible is infallible?Can you show me in Scripture where this phrase “keys to the kingdom” is defined?This is true. But then SCRIPTURE always demonstrates what that change is. We se it SCRIPTURALLY with Abraham and Jacob. Now I do see a change in Peter after the Lord personally ministers to him, but nothing at all in respect to assigning him “supremacy” or His “vicar” on earth These are human assertions, not Scriptural revelations.
To understand a reading…you have to make an ASSERTION on what it is saying. I’m saying how do you know that your ASSERTION is correct? Are you not infallible? Do you have the ultimate authority on this matter?I did. I read it in Matt. 16:13, 15.
Gal. 1:17 “…I did not immediately consult with flesh and blood, nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before me”Where does this passage say that Paul preached in Aradia or Damacus as an apostle?
In Gal. 1:18 Paul says he went up to Jerusalem to become acquainted with “Cephas,” he says nothing about being “instructed” by him. Don’t change or add to the Word of God.According to Acts ch 16. this jouney to Galatia took place after he was instructed by Peter in Jerusalem.
You’ve got it backwards, Sean. If Paul received his commission via Peter, then all he could have ever been was a missionary. Apostles are only appointed by Christ (Gal. 1:1), and one of the requisites is that he had to have seen Him after His bodily resurrection. They (His appointed Apostles) were to be His eyewitnesses to His bodily resurrection (Acts 1:8)."1 Cor 9:1 "Am I not free? Am I not an apostle? Have I not seen Jesus our Lord?Have all the Roman Popes and Bishops who claim the office of Apostle seen the risen Lord? Which one’s were personally instructed by Him?Before his journey to Jerusalem, he could have preached as a missionary, only.
Well of course. Do the bishops of Rome never acknowledge the supremacy of the Pope over them?Do we have to find explicit acknowledgement of his supremacy by the other apostles?
No, actually a correct understanding of Jesus’ words is what is enough. For example, Jn. 21:20-23.I think the words of Jesus are enough.
. It is not lawful without the bishop either to baptize or to celebrate a love-feast; but whatsoever he shall approve of, that is also pleasing to God, so that everything that is done may be secure and valid.
Chapter 9. Honour the bishop.
Moreover, it is in accordance with reason that we should return to soberness [of conduct], and, while yet we have opportunity, exercise repentance towards God.It is well to reverence both God and the bishop. He who honours the bishop has been honoured by God; he who does anything without the knowledge of the bishop, does [in reality] serve the devil. Let all things, then, abound to you through grace, for you are worthy. You have refreshed me in all things, and Jesus Christ [shall refresh] you. You have loved me when absent as well as when present. May God recompense you, for whose sake, while you endure all things, you shall attain unto Him.
You know that passage highlights that Jesus wanted the papacy. He said, “what if I want him to remain until I come?”No, actually a correct understanding of Jesus’ words is what is enough. For example, Jn. 21:20-23.
Okay if it helps you understand better…Gal. 1:17 "…I did not immediately consult with flesh and blood, nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before me"In Gal. 1:18 Paul says he went up to Jerusalem to become acquainted with “Cephas,” he says nothing about being “instructed” by him. Don’t change or add to the Word of God.You’ve got it backwards, Sean. If Paul received his commission via Peter, then all he could have ever been was a missionary. Apostles are only appointed by Christ (Gal. 1:1), and one of the requisites is that he had to have seen Him after His bodily resurrection. They (His appointed Apostles) were to be His eyewitnesses to His bodily resurrection (Acts 1:8)."1 Cor 9:1 "Am I not free? Am I not an apostle? Have I not seen Jesus our Lord?Have all the Roman Popes and Bishops who claim the office of Apostle seen the risen Lord? Which one’s were personally instructed by Him?
In there is not a single reference to being the monarchial ruler of all Christians everywhere.Also you fail to quote John 21: 15-18
In it Jesus tells Peter to “Feed my lambs” “Tend my sheep” “Feed my sheep”
If Jesus wasn’t telling Peter to govern the church on earth, I don’t know what He was doing.
Can you show me in Scripture where this phrase "keys to the kingdom
" is defined?
Can you first answer my question which I also posed in another thread, that is how do you know the context of Scripture?
What do you mean by “defined?” It’s clearly in Mt 16:15-19
This is true. But then SCRIPTURE always demonstrates what that change is. We se it SCRIPTURALLY with Abraham and Jacob. Now I do see a change in Peter after the Lord personally ministers to him, but nothing at all in respect to assigning him "supremacy
Jesus drew from Peter his three-fold profession of love in answer to the thrice repeated question: “Simon, son of John, dost thou love me?” Taught wisdom as well as penitence by his denials, Peter had lost his impetuous self-confidence. He relied now not on the force of his own protestations, but on his Master’s knowledge of men’s hearts: “Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee.” He was rewarded by being entrusted with the care of Christ’s flock. Peter was appointed shepherd over the sheep for whom Christ laid down His life. The perpetuity of his office, as the visible Head of Christ’s Church, had been made known after his profession of faith at Caesarea Philippi; he was the “rock,” as durable as the Church itself, co-extensive with its life, “until the consummation of the world.” Here, in response to his profession of love, was given him the universality of the pastoral charge. There would always be sheep of the Christian flock; different sheep, as age succeeded age; so there would ever be a Peter, a shepherd to tend the flock until “the Chief Shepherd makes his appearance,” to reward every true pastor with “the unfading wreath of glory.”In there is not a single reference to being the monarchial ruler of all Christians everywhere.
What we do see is a threefold confirmation of what Peter was called to do. Peter denied our Lord three times, so our Lord reaffirms Peter three times. Our Lord did this specifically on His third appearance to His disciples after His Resurrection.
But even in this exchange, Peter fails Jesus Christ in a certain respect.
Our Lord specifically asked Peter twice:
“Do you love (agape) Me?”
Peter could not agree with our Lord at the time and confirm Him. Peter responded both times:
“You know I love (phileo) You.”
That is not what our Lord asked both times.
Jesus then brought His question down a notch for Peter and asks Him if he loves (phileo) Him, and to this Peter frustratingly agrees.
But we must remember that it is God’s command that all church elders do just as Peter was called to do. Even Peter tells us so:
1Pe 5:2 “Shepherd the flock of God which is among you”
That word “shepherd” there is the same exact word Christ used with Peter.
Peter was not the only one called to feed Christ’s sheep. If we were to look back and find the first reference to these verses as teaching a monachial papacy for all bishops of Rome, we would not be impressed to see how the early church did not see what many in the RCC insist they see plainly today.
This is significant.
…
Can you first answer my question which I also posed in another thread, that is how do you know the context of Scripture?
What do you mean by “defined?” It’s clearly in Mt 16:15-19
he replied today with:
Eph 2:20 “having been built [the church] on the foundation of the apostleand prophets, Jesus Christ Himself being the chief corner stone[petra]”. If the church was built on just Peter [petros], why was the word apostle pluralized? This clearly tells us that God built His church on the foundation of [all] the prophets, not just Peter. If you look this up in a Greek-interlinear translation, you can verify it yourself.
Eph 2:20
Stone is a translators insertion.And are built2026 upon1909 the3588 foundation2310 of the3588 apostles652 and2532 prophets,4396 Jesus2424 Christ5547 himself846 being5607 the chief corner204stone;
The Gentiles lacked Israel’s messianic expectation, lacked the various covenants God made with Israel, lacked hope of salvation and knowledge of the true God (Eph 2:11-12); but through Christ all these religious barriers between Jew and Gentile have been transcended (Eph 2:13-14) by the abolition of the Mosaic covenant-law (Eph 2:15) for the sake of uniting Jew and Gentile into a single religious community (Eph 2:15-16), imbued with the same holy Spirit and worshiping the same Father (Eph 2:18). The Gentiles are now included in God’s household (Eph 2:19) as it arises upon the foundation of apostles assisted by those endowed with the prophetic gift (Eph 3:5), the preachers of Christ (Eph 2:20; cf 1 Cor 12:28). With Christ as the capstone (Eph 2:20; cf Isaiah 28:16; Matthew 21:42), they are being built into the holy temple of God’s people where the divine presence dwells (Eph 2:21-22).19 Then, therefore, ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellow-citizens of the saints, and of the household of God,
20 being built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being chief corner-`stone’,
21 in whom all the building fitly framed together doth increase to an holy sanctuary in the Lord,
22 in whom also ye are builded together, for a habitation of God in the Spirit.
was the only earthly one called to be the Rock.Peter was not the only one called to feed Christ’s sheep.
It is significant. Yet you still do not back up your claim with quotes showing Peter being treated any lower or equal to the other apostles. You haven’t quoted passages which state that Peter wasn’t the ultimate authority. You haven’t quoted words stating that some other earthly person had more authority in the Church than Peter when he was alive.If we were to look back and find the first reference to these verses as teaching a monachial papacy for all bishops of Rome, we would not be impressed to see how the early church did not see what many in the RCC insist they see plainly today.
This is significant.
Before you can understand, you would need to let go of your man-made doctrine of Sola Scriptura made popular by Martin Luther, the father of your denomination.They do acknowledge their appointment, right? They do personally accept it, right? Then they dress up and stand on the balcony and wave to the people. My question is where in Scripture does Peter acknowledge before the other Apostles his “supremacy?” Where in Scripture do the other Apostles acknowledge it?
MATTHEW 16:17-19On that day I will summon my servant Eliakim, son of Hilkiah; I will clothe him with your robe, and gird him with your sash, and give over to him your authority. He shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and to the house of Judah. I will place the key of the House of David on his shoulder; when he opens, no one shall shut, when he shuts, no one shall open.”
JOHN 21:15-17 – JESUS, THE GOOD SHEPARD, COMMANDS PETER TO “FEED HIS LAMBS”, INDICATING THAT NOW, WHILE JESUS IS AWAY, PETER, AND HIS SUCCESSORS WILL BE THE SHEPARDS OF CHRISTS FLOCK.Code:"To the angel of the church in Philadelphia, write this: " 'The holy one, the true, who holds the **key of David**, who opens and no one shall close, who closes and no one shall open, says this…”
When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord, you know that I love you.” He said to him, “Feed my lambs.”
Code:He then said to him a second time, "Simon, son of John, do you love me?" He said to him, "Yes, Lord, you know that I love you." He said to him, "***Tend my sheep.***"
Code:He said to him the third time, "Simon, son of John, do you love me?" Peter was distressed that he had said to him a third time, "Do you love me?" and he said to him, "Lord, you know everything; you know that I love you." said to him, "***Feed my sheep***.