A question about the OT

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xmydreamsfadex

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i don’t know if this fits in this catagory, but anyways…

why are we no longer bound to follow the old laws of the torah? didn’t Christ say to “keep his commandments”? so wouldn’t that be more than his teachings and the ten commandments? please help a newly converted Catholic gain some insight.
 
xmydreamsfadex said:
i don’t know if this fits in this catagory, but anyways…

why are we no longer bound to follow the old laws of the torah? didn’t Christ say to “keep his commandments”? so wouldn’t that be more than his teachings and the ten commandments? please help a newly converted Catholic gain some insight.
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The gospels report Jesus as saying contradictory things about the Law. Then there was a dispute on this issue between St Peter and St Paul. So the simplest explanation is that the gospels are presenting an accurate picture, which would explain how the disagreement arose.

With Phariseeism zeal for the ritual law had reached a natural limit. Jesus saw that and spoke against it. However it is a common mistake to assume that the Pharisees were the bad guys in the gospels. The dispute seems to have been relatively civilised and philosophical. Herod Antipas, an extremely corrupt man, and the Sadduccees, who collaborated with the Romans, were Jesus’ enemies. The Pharisees were more His opponents.
 
a great article about the meaning of the OT covenant, and the difference between the covenant and the law, and why the old covenant persists, but the old law does not.
 
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