This is totally wrong and I can easily refute it. Let’s suppose you don’t want to pay for an iPhone. You can deal with this situation in two ways:
- Don’t buy an iPhone, and you won’t have to pay for it.
- Steal an iPhone, and don’t pay for it.
Yes, the intention is the same, to avoid paying for an iPhone. But would anyone think that not buying an iPhone and avoiding paying for it is morally equivalent to stealing an iPhone and avoiding paying for it?
Avoiding babies is similar to avoiding paying for an iPhone:
- Refrain from having sex and avoid babies.
- Have sex and cheat and pervert the sexual act by using contraception.
Yes, the intention is the same, but the first way of accomplishing the goal is morally permissible, while the second way is immoral and a grave sin invariably condemned by all the Church Fathers.
You will never sell me on the fallacy that having sex with contraception is morally equivalent to not having sex at all, just like no one could convince me that stealing iPhones is morally equivalent to not buying iPhones.

Here’s a more outrageous example, to illustrate the same principle: let’s suppose you date a police officer’s daughter. Would you rather tell him:
- I don’t want your daughter to end up pregnant, therefore I never mess around with her,
OR,
- I don’t want your daughter to end up pregnant, therefore we are using condoms while having sex.

I mean, the man has a gun, has a Taser, you better watch what you say to him!!!
Come on, it’s just totally preposterous to suggest that the first solution to avoiding getting her daughter pregnant, i.e. behaving as a gentleman, is morally equivalent to messing around, and using condoms while having sex with her daughter!
I truly don’t get it: how can some EO priests be so blind to the truth that they regard the perversion of the sexual act, through contraception, as morally equivalent to sexual abstinence?