… and yet they completely believe that the New Testament (defined in the 4th century) in their KJV Bibles is the Word of God.
If they think that all authority was gone from Earth in the 4th century how do they know that their NT has the right books? Why not include some of the others that were debated? Why not exclude some of the NT that was debated?
michel
Yes, but this is exactly why we need to define a time for the apostasy.
Since there is no concensus in the LDS fold, one can say
Mormon: “I believe the apostasy was in the 2nd century”
Catholic: “But the Bible was canonized by the Catholic church in the 4th, and you guys use that canon”
Mormon: “OK, I was wrong, maybe it was the 4th or 5th century”
Catholic: “Ok… here are documents from those centuries (plenty) demonstrating that the church held distinctively Catholic doctrine, not LDS doctrine”
Mormon: “OK, maybe it was the 2nd century and the Catholic church just lucked out in implimenting the correct books, OR the Holy Ghost guided the Catholic church in that ONE task knowing that the LDS would eventually use it”
As you see, almost every one dodges the question
SO we must first set down a framework, and I propose doing so with a different approach.
Let’s follow the “Mormon apostolic succession” (though they would never use that terminology, more like “Succession of the First Presidency”) and determine where the “break” occurred. Then from here we can appeal to history and see what that pre-apostasy church believed, practiced, taught, and implimented.