F
fliesnow
Guest
Most of you have probably seen an article like this within the last few days:
ncronline.org/news/world/pope-francis-and-coptic-pope-agree-not-re-baptize
which is probably in reference to this section of their joint declaration:
My question is: Why would we have been re-baptizing in the first place? From what Coptic rubrics I can find, they appear to use the Trinitarian formula, which means the Church should find them valid. Why would we insist on re-baptizing someone who is baptized validly?
On the other hand, if their baptisms are invalid, then why would we accept them now?
ncronline.org/news/world/pope-francis-and-coptic-pope-agree-not-re-baptize
which is probably in reference to this section of their joint declaration:
Source
- In obedience to the work of the Holy Spirit, who sanctifies the Church, keeps her throughout the ages, and leads her to full unity — that unity for which Jesus Christ prayed: Today, we, Pope Francis and Pope Tawadros II, in order to please the heart of the Lord Jesus, as well as that of our sons and daughters in the faith, mutually declare that we, with one mind and heart, will seek sincerely not to repeat the baptism that has been administered in either of our Churches for any person who wishes to join the other. This we confess in obedience to the Holy Scriptures and the faith of the three Ecumenical Councils assembled in Nicaea, Constantinople and Ephesus. We ask God our Father to guide us, in the times and by the means that the Holy Spirit will choose, to full unity in the mystical Body of Christ.
My question is: Why would we have been re-baptizing in the first place? From what Coptic rubrics I can find, they appear to use the Trinitarian formula, which means the Church should find them valid. Why would we insist on re-baptizing someone who is baptized validly?
On the other hand, if their baptisms are invalid, then why would we accept them now?