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Oreoracle
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And that shows that only a finite amount of time has transpired. However, the number of “events” is infinite.To which The Philosopher (Aristotle) replied that to each distance there is a corresponding time. The shorter the distance between where the runner is and his goal, the shorter the time it will take to cover it. (See his answer to Achilles and the Tortoise.)
I should have been clearer perhaps. I am not getting the infinity from the amount of time that has passed. Rather, I am saying there are infinitely many events that are completed in that finite time interval.Aristotle also distinguished between dividing something up infinitesimally, and a thing that is actually infinite in its quantity.
So we may wish to make a distinction between having an infinite amount of matter/energy/space/time versus merely having an infinite amount of anything, because, as I’ve shown, you can partition even finite resources–in this case, a finite time interval–into infinitely many parts. And I suspect that this is what Chainbreaker meant all along, that there are no infinite “physical” quantities. But the OP seems to be rejecting all infinite regressions, and my example contradicts this provided that we agree motion is continuous.
Also, Archimedes has actually shown that even an apparently infinitesimal set of changes can have a finite value, as he demonstrated with a parabola.
I disagree. The infinity that Archimedes invoked was indeed quite infinite. In modern terms, the method of exhaustion he used to find areas under parabolas leads to an infinite sequence, with the true area being the limit of that sequence. The area is finite, but the sequence is indeed infinite.So the apparent infinite is not, of necessity, really and truly infinite. It only looks so from one angle - apparently, the angle of measurement, rather than the angle of existence.
So, once again, I think what you mean to say is that there are no infinite “physical” quantities such as surfaces of infinite area. But there are certainly infinite sets, and partitions of finitely large objects into infinitely many pieces.
And just to clarify, I am not splitting hairs here. This is an important point because it shows there is nothing* logically* contradictory about infinite regressions. The fact that the universe has no infinite “physical” quantities is, as far as we know, coincidental–a synthetic rather than analytic truth. A universe with infinite physical quantities may be logically possible, which means that you cannot argue against infinite regressions through deductive reasoning alone.