A refutation of an infinite regress

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To which The Philosopher (Aristotle) replied that to each distance there is a corresponding time. The shorter the distance between where the runner is and his goal, the shorter the time it will take to cover it. (See his answer to Achilles and the Tortoise.)
And that shows that only a finite amount of time has transpired. However, the number of “events” is infinite.
Aristotle also distinguished between dividing something up infinitesimally, and a thing that is actually infinite in its quantity.
I should have been clearer perhaps. I am not getting the infinity from the amount of time that has passed. Rather, I am saying there are infinitely many events that are completed in that finite time interval.

So we may wish to make a distinction between having an infinite amount of matter/energy/space/time versus merely having an infinite amount of anything, because, as I’ve shown, you can partition even finite resources–in this case, a finite time interval–into infinitely many parts. And I suspect that this is what Chainbreaker meant all along, that there are no infinite “physical” quantities. But the OP seems to be rejecting all infinite regressions, and my example contradicts this provided that we agree motion is continuous.
Also, Archimedes has actually shown that even an apparently infinitesimal set of changes can have a finite value, as he demonstrated with a parabola.
So the apparent infinite is not, of necessity, really and truly infinite. It only looks so from one angle - apparently, the angle of measurement, rather than the angle of existence.
I disagree. The infinity that Archimedes invoked was indeed quite infinite. In modern terms, the method of exhaustion he used to find areas under parabolas leads to an infinite sequence, with the true area being the limit of that sequence. The area is finite, but the sequence is indeed infinite.

So, once again, I think what you mean to say is that there are no infinite “physical” quantities such as surfaces of infinite area. But there are certainly infinite sets, and partitions of finitely large objects into infinitely many pieces.

And just to clarify, I am not splitting hairs here. This is an important point because it shows there is nothing* logically* contradictory about infinite regressions. The fact that the universe has no infinite “physical” quantities is, as far as we know, coincidental–a synthetic rather than analytic truth. A universe with infinite physical quantities may be logically possible, which means that you cannot argue against infinite regressions through deductive reasoning alone.
 
It seems strange to me that you would concede that an actual infinity can happen but take issue with one “happening”. The idea that they can happen at all, complete or not, is usually the controversial part.
I have not admited that an actual infinite actually exists, i am simply stating what it is. Its not sometthing occuring but rather what has ocurred in the past.
 
Chainbreaker also claimed that the runner never reaches his goal.

Obviously, this is not true and the runner can reach his goal and beyond, even though he does transgress an infinite number of consecutively smaller intervals.
There seems to be something of a red herring going on here. Are you saying that becuase a thing can be devided up a potentially infinite amount of times that therefore this equates to an actually-infinite regression of change?

I really hope thats not what you are arguing.
 
There seems to be something of a red herring going on here. Are you saying that becuase a thing can be devided up a potentially infinite amount of times that therefore this equates to an actually-infinite regression of change?

I really hope thats not what you are arguing.
In the last argument, I claimed that the runner can reach his goal, in spite of going 1/2 the remaining distance each time.
My argument for infinite regression was separate: As far as infinite regression is concerned, you cannot give me a first year for the descending sequence of years: 2014, 2013, 2012, 2011,…}. For any year that you give me, I can give you one that occurred before it. Thus this is a set illustrating infinite regression.
 
And that shows that only a finite amount of time has transpired. However, the number of “events” is infinite.
I don’t know what you mean by event. My argument hinges on a measure of change.
 
In the last argument, I claim that the runner can reach his goal. As far as infinite regression is concerned, you cannot give me a first year for the descending sequence of years: [2014, 2013, 2012, 2011,…}. For any year that you give me, I can give you one that occurred before it. Thus this is a set illustrating infinite regression.
It is not illustrating an actual infinite. It illustrates a potential infinite going backwards. secondly you fail to recognise that 2014 is a concept, it is not an objective number of changes.
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you fail to regognise that 2014 is a concept, it is not an objective number of changes.
I thought that the year 2014 was an actual real year of events. Now you tell me that the year 2014 is only a concept and does not exist? Also, are you saying that the year 2014 and others such as 2013 never existed? If the current year or the year 2013 never existed, I don’t know why people have been writing about the news events for that year. Did they just make everything up?
 
I thought that the year 2014 was an actual real year of events. Now you tell me that the year 2014 is only a concept and does not exist? Also, are you saying that the year 2014 and others such as 2013 never existed? If the current year or the year 2013 never existed, I don’t know why people have been writing about the news events for that year. Did they just make everything up?
2014 was made up. We did not discover an event that was by it very nature 2014. Its a subjective convention made up for our convenience. Objectively speaking there is no such thing as 2014.
 
2014 was made up. We did not discover an event that was by it very nature 2014. Its a subjective convention made up for our convenience. Objectively speaking there is no such thing as 2014.
Oh. I didn’t know that there is no such thing as the year 2014.
 
Well you did think that -5 existed objectively. So I am not surprised.
-5 has just as much claim to existence as any other number. 🤷

Why wouldn’t it? I know this isn’t directly related to the OP, but maybe it would help us see where you’re coming from.
 
And that shows that only a finite amount of time has transpired. However, the number of “events” is infinite.
I think we can be agnostic about that. In fact, I must say that because there can be such a thing as a number of events, that therefore each event must be distinct, and one distinction is it lasts from such a time to another such time.

Events in time are a great deal more complicated than abstract numbers; not all events in time are a progress (unless the Ice Age, or the “Dark Ages”, may be considered “progressive” to you. I know the Enlightenment is a regress in my mind). In my mind, an “event” is more like an equation than a number. It is true that the infinite contains it. But I would not say that the preceding was always less than the greater.
And I suspect that this is what Chainbreaker meant all along, that there are no infinite “physical” quantities. But the OP seems to be rejecting all infinite regressions, and my example contradicts this provided that we agree motion is continuous.
Hmmm. That is food for thought. Yes, I think, considering the laws of physics, not to mention matter itself, an infinite regress is not possible. IIUC, I think that was the regress which Thomas Aquinas spoke of as being an absurdity. And that makes sense.

But temporal infinity - in past and future - that is one of the qualities of God, at least as Aquinas put it. But, then, this temporal infinity could not be bound by physics; it’s the other way around.
I disagree. The infinity that Archimedes invoked was indeed quite infinite. In modern terms, the method of exhaustion he used to find areas under parabolas leads to an infinite sequence, with the true area being the limit of that sequence. The area is finite, but the sequence is indeed infinite. So, once again, I think what you mean to say is that there are no infinite “physical” quantities such as surfaces of infinite area. But there are certainly infinite sets, and partitions of finitely large objects into infinitely many pieces.
I am not saying the sequence is finite. But it can be represented in a finite quantity. You are correct in saying there are infinite sets. But they are not physically infinite (which you also agree with). And I do not think these sequences are infinite in motion, either, simply because motion is a matter of physics, not merely of time.

To go back to Achilles, let’s say he was in Athens in 240 BC and Sparta in 239 BC. If the motion of physical sequences were infinite, he would be in both at the same time for eternity. In fact, Achilles and every person and thing that could be conceived of would exist everywhere and at all times, with no limit in time or space. In short, Achilles and everything would be God. That would be a real (and real strange) pantheism.
And just to clarify, I am not splitting hairs here.
Oh, I know.
The fact that the universe has no infinite “physical” quantities is, as far as we know, coincidental–a synthetic rather than analytic truth.
I would say, unlike geocentrism, tectonic plates, and evolution, the evidence for the physical world being finite is tremendous. Nothing - at least nothing natural - mankind has observed thus far is infinite, and mankind has witnessed much. The claim that physical things are finite is almost as unchallengeable as the axiom that “from nothing comes nothing”. In fact, were it not for both axioms, it seems to me science would not be possible if we held agnosticism about the measurability of a thing. An infinite thing and an immaterial thing both share the trait of immeasurability.

Not that I think all extant things are finite. But all things typically bound by the laws of nature must needs also be finite, else it would be difficult to see how they are bound by the laws of physics, or of any other science, since all the natural sciences depend on measurable qualities (i.e, quantities).
A universe with infinite physical quantities may be logically possible, which means that you cannot argue against infinite regressions through deductive reasoning alone.
I plead ignorance to the “physically infinite”, whatever that is supposed to mean. I only know that what we do know exists is certainly finite. And how we go from the certainly infinite to the certainly finite is a very interesting and difficult to account for question, at least within science.
 
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