A reply to Sola Scriptura (the poster and the doctrine)

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Strawman. The Scriptures are the rule of faith and their purpose is to reveal the story of redemption through the work of Jesus Christ. As Jesus told the Pharisees the Scriptures are all about him. They are sufficient for salvation through faith in Jesus Christ.
SS, why do you keep confusing the OT scriptures with the Bible?

Jesus was not referring to ANYTHING in the New Testament. He was addressing specific OT passages and their interpretation to the Pharisees.

With the NT references you so hallow it is the same situation: there was NO collection of books (the ā€˜Bible’) known prior to the mid 4th century AD.

The Jews did NOT have their ā€˜bible’ (the Tanakh) until AFTER 90 AD.

Why do you persist in pushing your INDIVIDUAL, out of context, INTERPRETATION of scripture???

You spend so much energy saying nothing which addresses the fundamental problem: NO Biblical source for sola scriptura.
 
  1. SS beleives the scriptures are infallible.
  2. SS does not have infallible knowledge that the scriptures are infallible.
see the difference? šŸ˜‰
As Catholics we believe that there are things that are infallible and things that are not. We find this with the two or more witnesses scripture. Bible plus the supporting teachings of Holy Mother Church. TWO authorities. See the difference? 😃

Sorry but when you don’t combine Bible and teaching of Traditions I just don’t believe that you can be so ā€œsureā€ you are the only one that can be right.
 
Who gets to be SS’s RCIA sponsor at the end of this thread?😃

It’s only a matter of time.
 
  1. SS beleives the scriptures are infallible.
  2. SS does not have infallible knowledge that the scriptures are infallible.
see the difference? šŸ˜‰
Thank you my lady, I couldn’t have said it better myself.
 
Actually, I have been informed that Kaycee is a man!!! A big strong man!! :eek: So I apologize and ask his forgiveness :gopray2:

Grace and Peace Brother!
Sola
Uh huh…a fallible personal interpretation of the written word again? :rolleyes:

Kidding…just kidding. I made the same mistake.
 
Some controversialists claim a need for an infallible interpreter for an infallible Bible therefore requires an infallible student. This shows a serious misunderstanding of the concept of infallibility. The human mind is designed to be able to discern the truth and it usually does. It is not necessary for it to be infallible to do so. The method of trial and error is sufficient. Unfortunately, there are limits to the ability of the human mind to learn the truth. In particular, the mind is strongly influenced by prejudices and presuppositions that may make some conclusions unacceptable. It is also possible to draw incorrect conclusions from fallacious use of the reasoning faculty. One may also draw improper conclusions from partial data. Furthermore, the mind may have problems comprehending those matters the content of which is beyond our immediate experience. Nevertheless, with proper guidance, preparation, and a good source of correct comprehensive information, the human mind is capable of coming to true knowledge without needing to be formally infallible itself.

Infallibility is not a guarantee that one will arrive at the full truth. Instead, it is a guarantee that the individual so endowed will not make any errors in what he says. Students learn from their mistakes. While it would be nice if they got everything right all the time, it is not necessary for them to do so in order to learn the truth. An infallible teacher merely guarantees that the student will not be presented with any erroneous information. The student can then use his intellectual powers to learn correctly what he has been taught. He may make mistakes, but with recourse to an infallible teacher and his natural intelligence, the average person can sort this out to arrive at true knowledge.

We must also draw a distinction between the different types of infallibility. The Bible is a static product. It is a text, not an authority. It cannot interpret itself. It is infallible in content but only when interpreted correctly. It cannot stand on its own. As the old saying goes, ā€œA text without a context is a pretext.ā€ Biblical infallibility is therefore contextual and not self-evident. As such the Bible is only materially infallible.

The Magisterium. on the other hand, is not a static text but a living authority under the direct superintendence of the Holy Spirit. It is dynamic and self-aware. It can respond to questions and because of the special privilege granted to it by God, it cannot err. God is the one who is both the formal and efficient cause of infallibility. This means that when the Magisterium operates in the proper context with the proper power acting on it (i.e., under the superintendence of the Holy Spirit) its statements are always infallible. The Magisterium is therefore the instrumental cause of infallible teaching.

Material infallibility is not sufficient to finally guarantee infallible teaching. You need to apply the proper context (formal cause: the plan of God) with the proper power (efficient cause: superintendence of the Holy Spirit) applied by the proper authority (the instrumental cause: the Magisterium) to obtain the desired end (final cause: true teaching). Once you have that, then the human mind can use its proper powers of discernment to learn the truth.

Some Protestant controversialists claim that the decision of the Catholic to believe in an infallible Magisterium is the equivalent of the individual claiming infallibility for himself. This is not true. If you go to the doctor and he tells you what must be done for your ailment, when you submit to his treatment, you are not declaring your own medical competence. You are recognizing his authority in medical matters and trusting in his judgment. In submitting to the Magisterium, we are deferring to the will of God as he has revealed it to his Church. We are not asserting our infallibility, but rather our faith in God’s promises.

When the Protestant reads his Bible and decides for himself what to believe, he is the one who is asserting his own infallibility because he is not submitting to any authority other than his own interpretation. If some Protestant group wishes to defer authority to its ministers or its confessional statements, it is asserting the infallibility of its ministers or founders over and against that of the historic Church. They often allege that they merely are asserting the infallibility of the Bible, but then we have the problem of settling disputes over discordant interpretations. It is the interpretation whose correctness is being questioned, not the correctness of the text it was based upon. As such, it must be the interpreter who needs to be infallible not the source which he interprets. As we noted in the previous section on perspicuity, it is not always possible to completely understand the biblical text even by the experts. Ultimately, the Protestant system is unworkable.

Quoted from Dr. Art Sippo
 
Hi,

How does One use Sola Scriptura, if One does not know how
to read ?
 
I believe the correct term is that it is inerrant, not infallible. Infallible refers to an action that is undertaken by a person, whereas inerrancy refers to the accuracy(lack of error) of a piece of information.
Actually, infallible is appropriate, because Scripture is not just information, but it is God speaking and His words are always alive and active. The book of Hebrews says:

Hebrews 4:12
For the word of God is living and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart.

Not only that, but as I said before you sound nothing like the early church that you keep trying to tell me is infallible. As a matter of fact I sound much more like them then you on almost every count. Notice what the venerable Augustine says about Scripture:
And if the sacred and infallible Scriptures say that in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth, in order that it may be understood that He had made nothing previously,—for if He had made anything before the rest, this thing would rather be said to have been made"in the beginning,"—then assuredly the world was made, not in time, but simultaneously with time. ( ā€œThe City of Godā€ , 11.6, St. Augustine )

I can see why we will continue to go in circles. You have Scripture only because the Church revealed it to you, yet now that Scripture has been revealed the function of the Church as the pillar and foundation of truth has essentially ended.

Empty assertion. One does not have to ascribe infallibility to something for it to contain authority or be a pillar and foundation. It is only fallacious reason to say so.
You cannot provide a single shred of evidence that this transformation happened. It wasnt in operation while any of the Apostles were alive, No one spoke of it, no one prophesied it, and for hundreds of years no one claimed to be working towards completing the canon which was to be the only source of divine revelation for all time.
I’ve provided evidence for sola Scriptura from Scripture and history. You have done nothing for your rule of faith but special pleading. ā€œStructureā€ is there. God intended it all along, but didn’t reveal it until later. And I will show you once again the argument and I’m still waiting on yours:
Sola Scriptura is based off the principle that God’s word has always been the sole infallible and highest rule of faith. This was true before the fall with Adam and Eve, it was true after the fall with the Old Covenant church, it was true during the time of Jesus, and it has been true since His death.
Sola Scriptura is true for the church today, because there is no other source of God’s word besides the Scripture.
Therefore, if you cannot demonstrate a source that is equal to God’s word in Scripture then sola Scriptura naturally follows.

Now, I have made this similar argument a number of times. Not only have you not refuted this argument but you have not provided anything similar of an argument for your Rule of Faith that is not guilty of the most basic logical errors.
 
But somehow now that the Church was infallibly guided by the HS to produce a canon and declare the end of Scripture you seem to think that Scripture has basically replaced the Church in its role of propogating the faith according to the Great Commission.
You are just demagoguing now.
But there are some problems with this thinking.
Yeah, there are a lot of problems with your thinking, which is why I’m glad it is not mine. After setting up misrepresentations now you proceed to knock it down.
I will simply address the primary problem I see with your conceptually clean but functionally unactionable statement of SS above. The problem is that you moved from the ā€œinerrant word of Godā€ to the ā€œinfallible rule of faithā€. Scripture simply cannot - as in, it is impossible - move from being words on a page to being the ā€œrule of faithā€ for all topics for all people for all time.
You have no clue what you are talking about. I don’t claim Scripture is a rule of faith for all topics. That is just silly. Furthermore, Scripture was never just ā€œwords on a pageā€, but again this says a lot more about you and your unbridled and uninformed thoughts than anything else.
That requires interaction with another - a visible, audible, cognitive other. It can be the inerrant source from which another entity discerns the ā€œrule of faithā€, but it cannot be both in itself.
This makes no sense. You have shown previously that you do know what a rule of faith is and by these words you demonstrate it once again. Consult your Catholic encyclopedia or a dictionary and try understand what you keep attacking.
So the question becomes, "
By what process will the inerrant word of God be interacted with to produce the infallible rule of faith? That is really the essence of the discussion that we are having. Luther’s version of SS placed that function squarely on the lap of the individual being guided by the HS.

Scripture is the inerrant and infallible word of God and it is already an infallible rule of faith. If your faulty logic is true, then it equally applies to you, because you have to interpreted whatever your infallible church teaches. It does not come to you by osmosis. This is why Catholics disagree over such things as the inerrancy of Scripture and the meaning of Oral Tradition. And please don’t even try the romantic idea that you can ask the magisteruim, because you can’t. If you could you would and there would be no debates.
The Catholic believes that while revelation is possible, the Pope and the Magisterium are simply the usual means that the Holy Spirit uses to guide the Church in determining the rule of faith. And we believe that if and when it happens it is done infallibly because it is the HS doing it, and, as you said, God cannot error.

Now you are just preaching, no argument here.
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Philthy:
I still do not know how you propose this establishment of the ā€œrule of faithā€ occurs acccording to your understanding of SS.

Because you don’t know what a rule of faith is. I tried to help you once, I’m not going to repeat myself again.
Philthy;1870508:
You have intimated that you do not dimiss the ā€œauthority of the Churchā€ and you have also said that ā€œteachersā€ are necessary, but you have gotten down to brass tacks and provided a means for preaching the ā€œone faithā€ to ā€œevery nationā€.
You act as if you are saying something deep here. The authority of the Church is its power to interpret the rule of faith, to discipline, and to maintain the peace and purity of the church. Is infallibility needed to do this? Of course not. You parents and the government are authorities and they are not infallible. The Pharisees and Sadducees were authorities and teachers for God’s Old Covenant people. Tell me, were they infallible? If not, don’t you see how simple your question is?
 
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SolaScriptura:
No, I have assurance through faith that Church inerrantly discerned which books belonged in the Bible and which does not? Do you have have infallible knowledge of this?
So your answer is really yes. You changed ā€œinfalliblyā€ to ā€œinnerantlyā€, but the two words mean the same thing. On what do you base this assueance of faith that the Church inerrently discerned which books belonged in the Canon?
No, the words do not mean the same thing. If I take a test and make a 100 on it( which I often do šŸ˜‰ ), I was inerrant on that test. However, I was not infallible, because I could have made a number of mistakes it just happened that I didn’t on that occasion. Infallibility rules out the possibility of making an error. I noticed you didn’t answer my question, but instead asked more of your own. As a matter of fact I have answered this question a number of times already. So why don’t you answer my question? Do you have infallible knowledge that the books in your canon is correct?
 
No, the words do not mean the same thing. If I take a test and make a 100 on it( which I often do šŸ˜‰ ), I was inerrant on that test. However, I was not infallible, because I could have made a number of mistakes it just happened that I didn’t on that occasion. Infallibility rules out the possibility of making an error. I noticed you didn’t answer my question, but instead asked more of your own. As a matter of fact I have answered this question a number of times already. So why don’t you answer my question? Do you have infallible knowledge that the books in your canon is correct?
By faith we acknowledge that the Catholic Church is infallible and that she has infallibly declared the canon.

ā€œNow faith is being sure of what we hope for and certain of what we do not see.ā€ (Hebrews 11:1)

ā€œWith proper guidance*, preparation, and a good source of correct comprehensive information, the human mind is capable of coming to true knowledge without needing to be formally infallible itself.ā€

*The Holy Spirit and an infallible Church can guide us, obviously.

Therefore, we can come to true knowledge that the books in the canon are correct. We cannot know this, however, infallibly.

Luther obviously did not have an infallible knowledge of the canon, for example.
 
By faith we acknowledge that the Catholic Church is infallible and that she has infallibly declared the canon.

ā€œNow faith is being sure of what we hope for and certain of what we do not see.ā€ (Hebrews 11:1)

ā€œWith proper guidance*, preparation, and a good source of correct comprehensive information, the human mind is capable of coming to true knowledge without needing to be formally infallible itself.ā€

*The Holy Spirit and an infallible Church can guide us, obviously.

Therefore, we can come to true knowledge that the books in the canon are correct. We cannot know this, however, infallibly.
Exactly my point. One can come to a true knowledge without being infallible.
 
And please don’t even try the romantic idea that you can ask the magisteruim, because you can’t. If you could you would and there would be no debates.
This is not completely true.

While no one from the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith is monitoring this board, I can assure you that Bishops will intervene and the Vatican will call a theologian or priest to Rome for a chat if something becomes serious enough.

Some debate is healthy and tolerated. Some is not.

Our disputes here call for better catechesis; they do not warrant excommunication. šŸ™‚
 
Cool.

NOW can we talk about Apostolic Succession in the other thread?

Puhleeeeeze!
You know, I’m tempted. Actually, I believe in Apostolic Succession, but I’m sure not as you do. However, I must drastically cut back on my time here. I’ve invested too much in the past few weeks. And the worst part is that most of my time is spent correcting the same old mistakes. It is really not a good use of my time. So, feel free to start the thread and I will join in when I get the time, but it will be nothing like the time I have put in over the past few weeks. Plus I’m really the Sola Man!!

Sola Gratia, Sola Fide, Solus Christus, Soli Deo Gloria, Sola Scriptura!!
 
Empty assertion. One does not have to ascribe infallibility to something for it to contain authority or be a pillar and foundation. It is only fallacious reason to say so.
You have paraphrased in an attempt to make your point. But the Church is not merely ā€œusefulā€ (like Scripture describes itself in 2Tim) in upholding the truth, nor is it merely ā€œAā€ pillar of the truth (among other pillars), it is THE pillar of the truth. And if it is to be THE pillar and foundation of TRUTH, then it must not be upholding FALSEHOOD as well.
ss:
I’ve provided evidence for sola Scriptura from Scripture and history.
Yup - you call it strong, others call it weak. Been there.
And your ā€œproofā€ is a bit illogical. Part of what you do is you recognize that people throughout the history of the Church use Scripture to teach truth and you conclude that such activity is consistent with your version of SS but not the Catholic rule of faith. But from my perspective, when you demonstrate Christ and the Apostles using Scripture to uphold the Truth, how is that not an example of those with the authority to do so (ie, office of Apostle) using that authority along with Scripture? They seem inseparable to me.
And when I pointed out to you that some of what they taught was not from Scripture(OT) per se, you basically argued that it became Scripture and that is how we know about it! That, of course, only returns us to the question of how teachings which were not part of Scripture became Scripture. I simply dont know how you can place a higher authority on writings which God did not directly give to us than you can on the institution that you rely upon to provide you with those writings - it simply doesnt make sense to me.
ss:
Sola Scriptura is based off the principle that God’s word has always been the sole infallible and highest rule of faith.
I think this may be an aside, but is it ā€œbased offā€ of that principle or is that it? If that is not SS per se then give me what the essence of SS is that is not contained in the above statement, because we still have arrived at a funcioning version of SS without it, simply a theoretical version.
ss:
This was true before the fall with Adam and Eve,

This is special pleading and has nothing to do with SS. You are talking about God speaking directly to us?
ss:
it was true after the fall with the Old Covenant church,

Yup - but God’s word ā€œdoubledā€ in a sense. He now spoke directly to the established authority (Moses) to guide the people; established the seat of Moses and he later spoke through prophets, etc. as what was to become Scripture. So two forms of the word of God existed.
Scripture was still forthcoming and there was an entity to propogate it…
ss:
it was true during the time of Jesus, and it has been true since His death.
Sorry, but this is special pleading again. And you run smack into the problem of the Word of God existing as Scripture and Christ simultaneously.
ss:
Sola Scriptura is true for the church today, because there is no other source of God’s word besides the Scripture.
Says whom? Isnt this the debate we are having? Who says the holy Spirit is not speaking through the Church?
ss:
Therefore, if you cannot demonstrate a source that is equal to God’s word in Scripture then sola Scriptura naturally follows.

Actually, only a theoretical SS naturally follows - not the one you are proposing. Of course, again, this only holds if what you consider Scripture is actually Gods word. How do you propose to do that other than with ā€œspecial pleadingā€ to the ā€œevidenceā€ of Scripture itself?
ss:
Now, I have made this similar argument a number of times.

Yes you have and I pointed out valid objections to it as many times and I, for one, am tired of hearing it. Your ability to repeat it does not defend it. I have responded to you each time and you simply disagree with me.
On this we completely agree; God’s word is the highest authority. On this we only partially agree; what constitutes God’s word.
 
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