A sexual sin?

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Usually this question is posed in a different way. But, Is it a sin for a man to NOT finish the martial act at all because of NFP , even though the woman is finished? And this is done with knowledge before hand. Thank You.
 
TOP said:
Usually this question is posed in a different way. But, Is it a sin for a man to NOT finish the martial act at all because of NFP , even though the woman is finished? And this is done with knowledge before hand. Thank You.
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Clarification please? This sounds like coitus interruptus. That, of course is a contradiction of the natural moral law and, therefore: :tsktsk: not an option.
 
Yes it is a sin.

Are you talking about a couple in the middle of the marital act? Once started it should continue to completion. If you stop on purpose then that is sinful. Thus you are wanting to avoid preganancy. NFP is not about avoiding pregnancy when the marital act takes place, if you think it is then you are thinking wrong. NFP is about tracking when you are most likely to get pregnant and to abstain from marital relations during them times. However it is not to be used to exclusively avoid preganacy.

If you start the marital act, you should finish, unless something stops that which is not on purpose. (i.e. house catches fire, kid wakes up sick, etc.)
 
ljprevo said:
Yes it is a sin.
If you start the marital act, you should finish, unless something stops that which is not on purpose.
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For purposes of applying this “rule” when does the marital act start?
 
CuriousInIL said:
For purposes of applying this “rule” when does the marital act start?
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Physically, it begins when you can’t stop the dance. When ejaculation is going to happen, it needs to be in the right place – barring disability or ‘accidents’.
 
mercygate said:
Physically, it begins when you can’t stop the dance. When ejaculation is going to happen, it needs to be in the right place – barring disability or ‘accidents’.
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That is the rule of thumb, basically when the couple is aroused to have intercourse.

When Tab “A” is put into slot “B” the marital act has definitely begun there is not doubt about that. Other than that could be speculation.
 
mercygate said:
Physically, it begins when you can’t stop the dance. When ejaculation is going to happen, it needs to be in the right place – barring disability or ‘accidents’.
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Are you saying that if someone has a disability that prevents them from being able to have intercourse that it’s OK to ejaculate outside of intercourse?
 
TruthSkr said:
Are you saying that if someone has a disability that prevents them from being able to have intercourse that it’s OK to ejaculate outside of intercourse?
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No. I meant that if a normal couple, for some reason on ONE occasion, is unable to complete the act after it has begun, then it is not a sin to ejaculate outside the vagina. I did not intend to indicate a loophole for adopting “disability” as an excuse.

I thank you for questioning my ambiguity. This is an important point.

All I meant was that there might be times when attempting the marital embrace while wearing a full leg cast, for example, you might discover that you are impeded from completing it properly after it is too late – THAT is the kind of disability I had in mind. I did not mean the kind of disability that would constitute a diriment impediment to marriage.
 
mercygate said:
No. I meant that if a normal couple, for some reason on ONE occasion, is unable to complete the act after it has begun, then it is not a sin to ejaculate outside the vagina. I did not intend to indicate a loophole for adopting “disability” as an excuse.
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Sorry I couldn’t resist this,

but does a sudden muscle cramp count? :rotfl:
 
mercygate said:
I would think so – if it stops the train. Not that I can imagine a muscle cramp happening quite at THAT moment.
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Well it depends how it is happening, I have been a victim 😊

However it did not stop it, postponed for a few minutes, not stopped :rotfl:
 
ljprevo said:
That is the rule of thumb, basically when the couple is aroused to have intercourse.

When Tab “A” is put into slot “B” the marital act has definitely begun there is not doubt about that. Other than that could be speculation.
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And so at this point an ejaculation is “required” baring something unusual?
Does that mean if a couple knows that the man has an issue in which he often does not ejaculate at all that it is sinful to put Tab “P” in slot “V”?
 
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