K
kellie
Guest
hamba2han,From the other thread:
A good example of this would be Shakespeare’s play, Henry the Fourth, in which some of the characters discuss bees and mention that the bees are soldiers and have a king. That is what people thought in Shakespeare’s time - that the bees that one sees flying around are male bees and that they go home and answer to a king.
However, that is not true at all. The fact is that they are females, and they answer to a queen and that the male bee never leaves his home to gather food and yet it took modern scientific investigations in the last 300 years to discover that this is the case.
By comparison, in the 16th chapter (Surah an-Nahl 16:68-69) the Qur’an mentions that the female bee leaves its home to gather food.
What this shows is that while the people of Shakespeare’s time who lived around 1,000 years after the Qur’an was revealed got their facts wrong about bees, the Qur’an did indeed state a scientific fact which modern science has only recently discovered.
In other words, Shakepeare’s play Henry the Fourth failed the test of Science but the Qur’an has no such discrepancy.
Is there anything vague about specifying that worker bees are females as can also be seen in the verse about Prophet Solomon (pbuh) overhearing a female ant talking?
The fact of the matter is that when it comes to specifying the gender of honeybees, Shakespeare simply got it wrong whereas the Qur’an has been proven to be correct.
What does Karl Popper has to say about that?
If I decided to agree with you, that the Koran is scientifically correct in this matter, and Shakespeare was wrong, how does that prove that the WHOLE of the Koran is true?
It only shows that the writer got science right through observation, and thought, such as pondering on the possibility that mountains are pegs in the ground, and female bees do all the work.
But how does that prove that the rest of the Koran is true when it comes to matters of God?
I don’t understand your argument at all