That is hardly biblical justification for Marian dogma. It certainly does not suggest the Immaculate Conception. Certainly does not grant her the title of “Queen of Heaven” or “Queen of the Apostles.”
Luke 1:28 Kechartiomene - the root charito means to grace
Being a perfect passive participle she recieved the grace sometime in the past
Tradition (2 Thes 2:15) says this time was the moment of her conception
So never was Mary without grace
With grace sin will have no dominion over us
Other examples of the perfect include
-Bleesed is the fruit of your womb
-the Word was made flesh
-It is finished
I’m well aware of what the Roman Catholic Church says.
But it still suggests that Mary is not saved by her Son.
The Immaculate Conception, though it was bestowed by God, still allows Mary to avoid the salvation that comes through Jesus Christ.
You still have not addressed the problem though, about Mary’s mother and other female ancestors. Did Mary’s mother need to also be conceived immaculately?
Mary recieved her amazing grace from God (Luke 1:30), so she was indeed saved by her Son, she was just saved before the Cross, God being God was able to do this (without Mary’s Mum, Gran etc being I.C.). So she did need a saviour.
A pure vesel was made for Jesus. It was fitting.
Genesis 3:15 I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel.
Luther said “. . . she is full of grace, proclaimed to be entirely without sin. . . . God’s grace fills her with everything good and makes her devoid of all evil. . . . God is with her, meaning that all she did or left undone is divine and the action of God in her. Moreover, God guarded and protected her from all that might be hurtful to her.” (Ref: Luther’s Works, American edition, vol. 43, p. 40, ed. H. Lehmann, Fortress, 1968)