A theological argument FOR abortion

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So would it be accurate to say, having utterly been disproved on their original premise the OP is now off topic grasping at starws?
It would be accurate, but somewhat uncharitable – is it not good that we have the opportunity to challenge such laughable claims - and free any lurkers or readers of any false pretences, even if the OP seems doltish?
 
So would it be accurate to say, having utterly been disproved on their original premise the OP is now off topic grasping at starws?
No, it would not. First, the so-called “disproves” exist only in you mind. Second, the conversation is drifting, as usual. It is natural to have different side-issues to pop up. And third, even though it is your prerogative to jump in, don’t be surprised if your irrelevant remakes will not elicit further answers. Otherwise, have a great day…
 
It would be accurate, but somewhat uncharitable – is it not good that we have the opportunity to challenge such laughable claims - and free any lurkers or readers of any false pretences, even if the OP seems doltish?
Yeah, I guess that’s true… It’s just that we’re on the 15th page now and they’re still grasping. It’s entirly self evident that not only does the OP know nothing about theology (a point made several times now already), but more over they really don’t have any familiar with religion at all. I’d almost suspect (of course I can’t know for sure) that they may in fact be a “cradle athiest”, or at best fell away before they had any real understanding of faith at all. That’s about how outlandish the claims were.

This was completely reasoned out based upon nothing more than

“I know a religion called Christianity exists, further that Catholisism a form of christianity is out there all the time messing things up for choice”
“I know they think there’s such a thing as heaven”
“I know heaven is supposed to be pretty good”
“I’ve picked up a keyword or two by lurking”
“I think I’ll try throwing them all together into some bizzar concoted idea that faith supports abortion and see if they’re silly enough to bite on my idea”
 
I can see that you have no idea what I am talking about. It would be absurd, if I had said (or insinuated) that. The “tertium non datur” refers to “theism” and “atheism”, which are still forbidden subjects.
uh, right… that makes sense in the context :rolleyes:
But pursuing and demanding linguistic precision is hopefully allowed. One either believes in anything or does not. There is no “in-between” alternative.
lol - I suggest you think about what you just wrote. Either my pointing out why it is wrong should be quite unnecessary, since it’s so obvious, or it will be a waste of time for me to do so, since you’re so determinedly closed-minded. (Tertium datur: you are being purposely obtuse because you are a perverse individual.)
 
It does not really matter, since I am talking about a personal acceptance of some story. What is my responsibility if I (personally) find a story unbelievable? As for the critique of the materialist approach, it is the default position. If you wish to show that there is a “spiritual realm”, then be prepared to show some foundation for such an assertion. As for substantiation, the criteria are simple. It should never be required that one a-priori lends credence to a claim, rather that the process starts from a mutually accepted position (for example the physical universe exists, etc…) and from that starting point you can show a reasonable and logical path to something “beyond” that.
This simply isn’t true. You can state that the empirical position is the “default,” yet millions of Buddhists and Hindus disagree heartily with you. What evidence do you have that our empirical experience is in fact true? We already went over this the last time we debated. Your position cannot be established except through philosophy, and empirical philosophy is not the only philosophy possible.
There are no generic desires, only specific ones, which vary from person to person, and from time to time. I read a few times that people have an intrinsic desire to know God, and that is just hogwash. I don’t have any such desire. My desires are to live a good life, to have a lot of fun, to play with my grandson, to love my wife and family, to read good books, to see beautiful places, to leave good memories behind, and zillions of other here-and-now things.
There is a definite trend in your desires- “good,” “fun,” “play,” “love,” “good (again),” “beauty,” and “good (yet again).”

Just push a little bit beyond that and consider what these words actually mean. You will be hard pressed to find a normal, healthy individual who desires a ****** life…
“Virtue” is just a buzzword, which stands for “stuff I like”. It has no relevance.
I find it surprising you can singlehandedly dismiss almost all of western philosophy and the whole nature of virtue in a single sentence.
No problem for me. But I am curious about your reflection on this. What does the Catholic church teach on the subject of those who have been exposed to the “teaching”, find it “mene, tekel, ufarsin”, but otherwise lead a good life (without bothering to worship, of course). This is what I am curious about. And I don’t get an answer. Would you concentrate on this?
In short, if their intellect is at all clouded by personal vice, then the person is responsible for their error since they are responsible for the vice.

Living the good life requires knowledge, which goes right back to what Aristotle said- virtue and knowledge are inseparable. You can’t live a perfectly good life in the absence of perfect knowledge. Any states in between are proportional to each other. It is impossible to live a good life while being wrong about the ultimate purpose of the world. You reject any ultimate teleology. If you are wrong, you cannot lead a good life. You can do some good things, but that is not the same as having a good life. If you are right, then you can lead a good life, and all of this is moot. The key point is that you cannot speak of a good life in separation from knowledge.
Why do you think that those practices are exclusive prerogative of Catholics? (Again, excepting the part which refers to God.)
Well, you deny the concept of virtue, which is a common atheistic response. A denial of the reality of virtue is not conducive to practicing virtue. While other philosophies encourage virtue, this is not surprising in the least- for all philosophies have some degree of truth in them, some more than others.
 
Not “all” literature. And the Scriptures are so easy to interpret to “mean” what one wants it to “mean”.
Not all literature? Your claim is that some literature is ALWAYS understood by everyone in the context in which they were written and hence completely bulletproof to misinterpretation? Wow. Obviously, not true. What I said is true about all literature (that sometimes the words are not understood in the context they were written, thus causing possible misinterpretation). No doubt about it.

It is true that a lot of people can take a passage from the Bible and interpret it to mean what they want. However, if their interpretation contradicts the other passages in the Bible, then it’s a false interpretation. Passages can shed light on other passages. Hence, it’s not easy to merely interpret Scripture in any way that you want and remain consistent.
Majority never rules.
What exactly are you talking about here?
Also, deferring to the authority of the Church Fathers or Councils or the Pope can only be accepted by Catholics.
Did I say otherwise?
That is not a valid argument for Protestants, or followers of other faiths, and especially not for unbelievers. I am sure you know that.
I do indeed. But, dare I ask, what may be the … point … in your comment here. I was obviously talking about the criteria that Catholics use to interpret Scripture.

However, it would be reasonable that anyone wanting find an authentic interpretation of Scripture would at least look to the Church Fathers for some guidance since they chronologically followed right after the writers of the New Testament (and in fact, some of the early Church Fathers lived at the same times as some of the apostles). This is because the Church Fathers lived around the time of the New Testament writers and thus would have a more informed view of the context in which the writings came about. That is why many Protestants, actually, accept the Church Fathers as some kind of authority.
My friend, I do not wish to get the “list of all lists”. But an explicit list of the officially declared dogmas is not a whole lot to ask for?
Nicene Creed. That’s a pretty good one.
A list which would enumerate the do’s and don’t’s of salvation?
Ten Commandments. That’s decent.
A detailed proof of the asserted “God can be known through reason alone” stipulation?
Well, I guess, with some tedium … Thomas Aquinas’ proofs. I’ve yet to see on this some give real objections to them that don’t lead to general philosophical chaos and nihilism and overall linguistic meaningless. But, we can go there again.

Now, you may look at the Creed and look at the Commandments and say that they are specific enough … or are vague … or use words that could mean different things. Don’t worry, long treatises by theologians (including Church Fathers) have written lengthy documents explicating their meaning. Also, another endless line of inquiry happens when finding out how to apply the concepts of the Creed and Decalogue to individual questions. But anyway, there you go.
Unfortunately what you call “well-reasoned theology” is simply speculation for me. The concept of “original sin” is a horribly unjust idea. God says that he will visit the fathers’ sins up to the seventh generation. Yes, I heard the analogy that one’s deeds will affect others. But that is just a physical law, which allegedly does not limit God. In my eyes, nothing can justify to allow the domino-effect reach the descendants of the guilty ones - and not only to the seventh generation, but all the way until this world stands.
Origin sin doesn’t make offspring guilty insofar as they automatically merit hell. It merely prevents them from automatically inheriting grace that would allow them of fulfillment, virtue, and happiness. It’s not that the offspring is deprived of something that they deserve by their very nature. It was a privilege that they would have inherited, had not the original father messed up. However, this privileged grace can be re-acquired through the sacraments. So, original sin is unjust insofar as Adam was suppose to pass it on as God instructed. But original sin is not unjust insofar as all humans deserve it. Hence, it is not unjust for God to allow original sin.

Am I missing a particular aspect of your question?
 
How can the lack of faith be anyone’s “fault”? Faith, beliefs are not under volitional control. No one can decide: “from now of I will believe something that I found unbelievable”? That is impossible.
You seem to believe that there is no free will, right? Most people believe that we can choose what to believe. We can choose to believe in a lie and know that it’s a lie, for example. Most people will admit of having done that at least once in their life. Hence, one is able to accept something they know is true or reject it and believe the lie that it isn’t true. So, belief is definitely under volitional control. But if you don’t believe that, do you even believe in volition at all?
Not really, though I appreciate your effort. 🙂 I simply do not accept the concept of “sin” (the act of disobedience to God). As such I cannot have “full knowledge of the sinful nature of any act” - does that mean that I can never commit a “mortal sin”? Before you tell me, that I am told of the “sinful nature” of an act, remember, that I do not accept such a declaration if it is only based on a supposed “authority”.
Now, it is possible that the faith may never have been expressed to you in a way that you genuinely understood, in which case it would not be your fault. But it is also possible that you did see some of the truth of the faith but chose to ignore it, in which case it would be your fault. But judging whether someone is genuinely rejecting something or rejecting what he innocently but erroneously thinks that something is … is not a judgment that another person should make. At least, that’s what the Bible says.

But also, I assume that you believe in good and evil acts, right? If you do, and you believe that such-and-such an act is evil, then committing it would be sinful and even potentially mortally sinful if the other requirements are met. “Sin” doesn’t just equate to “disobedience to God” but can be synonymous simply to “an evil act.” And yet, I would say that if you do believe in evil acts, you would thus have, at the very least, a subconscious awareness of God. If there is no God, there would be no good and evil. Atheists who believe in good and evil, even though they are the more admirable kind of atheist, don’t make sense ultimately. My opinion … but not just mine.
Again, what is the “full knowledge of faith”? I was told about the faith, and I reject it.
Repeating some of what I just said (I apologize), here are possible reasons one does not accept the faith after being told it by someone/something …
  1. One sees that the faith doesn’t contradict what he knows to be true but sees that it’s not necessarily true … and hence does not accept it. The Catholic claim is that the truths of the faith do not contradict reason, but that they cannot be arrived at by natural reason alone either (and I’m talking about the faith-specific truths like the divinity of Jesus). The only way one actually gains real knowledge of the faith is through a divine act in your intellect. So, even when an evangelist expresses the truths of the faith to someone, it will fall on deaf ears if God does not provide the divine concepts (to that someone) that make evangelist’s words have their meaning. It is possible that God withholds the faith from people for a part of their life, in which case they would not be at fault for not having the faith. However, even though it’s possible, it is also a teaching that God is constantly guiding them toward the faith in one way or another.
  2. Another reason to reject the faith is by thinking that the faith, rather than being possibly true, is actually false (i.e. contradicting itself or contradicting something he thinks is true). There are different reasons why one may think this. The person may misunderstand the natural meaning of the words of the Bible (or anything that expresses the faith) in such a way that the faith appears contradictory … thus making him close his mind to it and even closed to the divine concept (because if a natural understanding of the words of the evangelist is not understood, the divine meaning of the words can be blocked as well). This misinterpretation could be innocent or could be culpable, for some the errors we have are because of the lies we tell ourselves … while other misinformation may merely because we’ve been told wrongly (possibly from an early age). Hence, we may reject the faith because it seems contradictory … because we tell ourselves lies or because we have inadvertently believed lies that were told to us that make the faith seem false.
Well, that’s a summary of it. I am completely willing to draw this out in detailed, tedious, encyclopedic volumes.😉
 
You can state that the empirical position is the “default,” yet millions of Buddhists and Hindus disagree heartily with you.
If they follow what they preach, they will die by neglecting their body’s needs. If they do not practice what they preach then they are hypocrites.
What evidence do you have that our empirical experience is in fact true?
Our own survival. The proof of the pudding is that it is edible.
I find it surprising you can singlehandedly dismiss almost all of western philosophy and the whole nature of virtue in a single sentence.
Why should I accept it? One man’s vice is another man’s virtue.
In short, if their intellect is at all clouded by personal vice, then the person is responsible for their error since they are responsible for the vice.
What is “vice”? What is “virtue”?
Living the good life requires knowledge, which goes right back to what Aristotle said- virtue and knowledge are inseparable. You can’t live a perfectly good life in the absence of perfect knowledge. Any states in between are proportional to each other. It is impossible to live a good life while being wrong about the ultimate purpose of the world. You reject any ultimate teleology. If you are wrong, you cannot lead a good life. You can do some good things, but that is not the same as having a good life. If you are right, then you can lead a good life, and all of this is moot. The key point is that you cannot speak of a good life in separation from knowledge.
Of course I deny “teleology”. Of course I deny “ultimate meanings”, and such. Of course I deny “perfect goodness”, etc… These are undefined, pompous words, without meaning. One can lead a “good” life, if one practices helpfulness when possible, if one avoids hurting others. There is nothing problematic about these endeavors, even if one rejects the “ultimate” stuff.
Well, you deny the concept of virtue, which is a common atheistic response. A denial of the reality of virtue is not conducive to practicing virtue. While other philosophies encourage virtue, this is not surprising in the least- for all philosophies have some degree of truth in them, some more than others.
Not exactly, I find “virtue” an undefined category, which provides no guidelines.
 
Not all literature? Your claim is that some literature is ALWAYS understood by everyone in the context in which they were written and hence completely bulletproof to misinterpretation? Wow. Obviously, not true. What I said is true about all literature (that sometimes the words are not understood in the context they were written, thus causing possible misinterpretation). No doubt about it.
Read the Kama Sutra. It is literature, it is straightforward, and it cannot be misinterpreted. (It is also a lot of fun to practice it. :)) Now, mystical texts are all ambiguous, for sure.
It is true that a lot of people can take a passage from the Bible and interpret it to mean what they want. However, if their interpretation contradicts the other passages in the Bible, then it’s a false interpretation.
Which one is false? You have two contradictory passages, and choose whichever is convenient.
Well, I guess, with some tedium … Thomas Aquinas’ proofs. I’ve yet to see on this some give real objections to them that don’t lead to general philosophical chaos and nihilism and overall linguistic meaningless. But, we can go there again.
Those have been refuted from Kant onwards innumerable times. Suffice it to say that they all suffer from the problem of fallacy of composition.
Origin sin doesn’t make offspring guilty insofar as they automatically merit hell. It merely prevents them from automatically inheriting grace that would allow them of fulfillment, virtue, and happiness. It’s not that the offspring is deprived of something that they deserve by their very nature. It was a privilege that they would have inherited, had not the original father messed up. However, this privileged grace can be re-acquired through the sacraments. So, original sin is unjust insofar as Adam was suppose to pass it on as God instructed. But original sin is not unjust insofar as all humans deserve it. Hence, it is not unjust for God to allow original sin.
Whatever Adam did or did not do (is Genesis taken literally, or allegorically?) should have affected only him. Everything else is unjust.
 
You seem to believe that there is no free will, right?
Nope. We cannot prove or disprove the existence of “free will”, but it is a plausible assumption.
Most people believe that we can choose what to believe.
Most people are wrong.
We can choose to believe in a lie and know that it’s a lie,
for example.
If you know that it is lie, you may “pretend” to believe it, you may choose to follow it, but you can never believe that it is true. Can you “make” yourself to believe that putting your hand into a fire will not burn it? Can you make yourself to believe that Satan is “good”? That Santa Claus literally exists?
But also, I assume that you believe in good and evil acts, right? If you do, and you believe that such-and-such an act is evil, then committing it would be sinful and even potentially mortally sinful if the other requirements are met.
That is fine and dandy. But there are many acts which I do not consider “evil”, which do not hurt anyone, and yet such acts are frequently declared “mortally sinful” by the Catholic Church. 🙂
“Sin” doesn’t just equate to “disobedience to God” but can be synonymous simply to “an evil act.”
Or it would be “falling short of the mark”. Another word with many possible meanings.
And yet, I would say that if you do believe in evil acts, you would thus have, at the very least, a subconscious awareness of God. If there is no God, there would be no good and evil. Atheists who believe in good and evil, even though they are the more admirable kind of atheist, don’t make sense ultimately. My opinion … but not just mine.
Yes, I have seen it, and I vehemently reject it.
Repeating some of what I just said (I apologize), here are possible reasons one does not accept the faith after being told it by someone/something …
  1. One sees that the faith doesn’t contradict what he knows to be true but sees that it’s not necessarily true … and hence does not accept it. The Catholic claim is that the truths of the faith do not contradict reason, but that they cannot be arrived at by natural reason alone either (and I’m talking about the faith-specific truths like the divinity of Jesus). The only way one actually gains real knowledge of the faith is through a divine act in your intellect. So, even when an evangelist expresses the truths of the faith to someone, it will fall on deaf ears if God does not provide the divine concepts (to that someone) that make evangelist’s words have their meaning. It is possible that God withholds the faith from people for a part of their life, in which case they would not be at fault for not having the faith. However, even though it’s possible, it is also a teaching that God is constantly guiding them toward the faith in one way or another.
  2. Another reason to reject the faith is by thinking that the faith, rather than being possibly true, is actually false (i.e. contradicting itself or contradicting something he thinks is true). There are different reasons why one may think this. The person may misunderstand the natural meaning of the words of the Bible (or anything that expresses the faith) in such a way that the faith appears contradictory … thus making him close his mind to it and even closed to the divine concept (because if a natural understanding of the words of the evangelist is not understood, the divine meaning of the words can be blocked as well). This misinterpretation could be innocent or could be culpable, for some the errors we have are because of the lies we tell ourselves … while other misinformation may merely because we’ve been told wrongly (possibly from an early age). Hence, we may reject the faith because it seems contradictory … because we tell ourselves lies or because we have inadvertently believed lies that were told to us that make the faith seem false.
Well, that’s a summary of it. I am completely willing to draw this out in detailed, tedious, encyclopedic volumes.😉
I appreciate your effort. Really, this belongs to a different thread.
 
Read the Kama Sutra. It is literature, it is straightforward, and it cannot be misinterpreted. (It is also a lot of fun to practice it. :))
Sorry, dude. But academics dispute over the meanings of Sanskrit words even in the Kama Sutra. Just look it up on Wikipedia. Obviously, even in the most “straight forward” of ancient documents, the meanings of words especially with the context in which they were written can get ambiguous over time … even in the most simple of sex manuals.

Now, you can debate this point further, but I assure you, you will lose. There is no sane person who would honestly argue that meanings of words in ancient documents wouldn’t become ambiguous over time. So, please, spare us, I beg you.
Now, mystical texts are all ambiguous, for sure.
Ambiguous perhaps … but meaningless? Or … what? What’s your point again?
Which one is false? You have two contradictory passages, and choose whichever is convenient.
Which two passages are you referring to?
Those have been refuted from Kant onwards innumerable times. Suffice it to say that they all suffer from the problem of fallacy of composition.
The apparent refutations have been refuted innumerable times. Kant in general, too, has been refuted innumerable times. There is hardly anyone who exists that agrees with Kant. I had a professor who had a Ph.D is Kant, and he was even a fan of him, but still disagreed with him on fundamental issues. If you want to read real fallacies, read Kant. He’s a joke.
Whatever Adam did or did not do (is Genesis taken literally, or allegorically?) should have affected only him. Everything else is unjust.
Why? I see mere assertions here. And you didn’t address my arguments with any detail at all.
Nope. We cannot prove or disprove the existence of “free will”, but it is a plausible assumption.
That works.
Most people are wrong.
About everything? About the possibility of one believing something one knows is false? Why? The burden of proof is on you, since you are in the minority.
If you know that it is lie, you may “pretend” to believe it, you may choose to follow it, but you can never believe that it is true. Can you “make” yourself to believe that putting your hand into a fire will not burn it? Can you make yourself to believe that Satan is “good”? That Santa Claus literally exists?
Absolutely. You can train yourself to believe in false things, but you can never KNOW false things (i.e. you can never “know” something to be true when it is in fact false). You can brainwash yourself. Eventually, you will start believing it. You can start making up apparent facts to justify your self-lies. Come on, people do that all the time. It’s called, more or less, rationalizing.

This is extraordinarily apparent in acts of repression, where the person doesn’t want a truth brought into consciousness, so they deny it with great emotional violence and make-believe it didn’t happen to the point that they believe it didn’t happen. A lot of people do this, even on a small non-psychotic level.
That is fine and dandy. But there are many acts which I do not consider “evil”, which do not hurt anyone, and yet such acts are frequently declared “mortally sinful” by the Catholic Church. 🙂
If you truly believe they are not evil, then they are not mortal sins to you if you commit them. The Church nonetheless calls them “mortal sins” because they are grave matter and would technically be mortal sins if the other two requirements are also met. If those requirements are not met, then they are grave sins, and not mortal.
Or it would be “falling short of the mark”. Another word with many possible meanings.
Um … not sure what you point is. I may agree with you … if I knew what you were saying. But you speaketh in riddles.
Yes, I have seen it, and I vehemently reject it.
Perhaps, although you have constantly demonstrated that you hold erroneous opinions about what the Church exactly teaches, so maybe, by some chance, you possess a key bit of innocent ignorance. Who know? I don’t. I’m not judging. I’m just some guy.😃
 
Sorry, dude. But academics dispute over the meanings of Sanskrit words even in the Kama Sutra. Just look it up on Wikipedia. Obviously, even in the most “straight forward” of ancient documents, the meanings of words especially with the context in which they were written can get ambiguous over time … even in the most simple of sex manuals.
I grant you that the precise meaning of individual words might be argued about. But the message itself is crystal clear. Not so with the Bible. The message conveyed by the OT is diametrically different from the NT.
Which two passages are you referring to?
Ok, lets take an example. OT says: “eye for an eye, tooth for a tooth”. NT says: “do not resist evil” and “turn the other cheeck”. If you would say that the NT overrides the OT, then consider Jesus’s words: “I did not come to abolish the law, rather to uphold it”. And both of those “commands” are presented in unequivocal fashion, without ambiguity. Which one should be followed? Can’t follow both - at the same time.
The apparent refutations have been refuted innumerable times.
Nonsense. To my best knowledge not even Catholic philosophers contend that the 5 “proofs” of Aquinas are convincing. And even if they were, they would not be a “proof” of the Christian God - but of course they are not valid.
Why? I see mere assertions here.
If a finite deed is met with an infinite sentence, and that is called “just”, then we have nothing to talk about. If an innocent person is doomed for the act of someone else, and that is called “just”, then there is no common ground for a conversation. Maybe you call that a “mere assertion”. If so, then our concepts of justice cannot be reconciled - and I have no idea what your usage of “just” sentence means.

Try to apply these ideas to a human judge, and see if you call that sentence “just”. Some people - at this point - would bring up the “quod licet Iovi, not licet bovi” - and say that God’s actions and human actions cannot be measured with the same scale. I hope you do not want to commit that fallacy.
Absolutely. You can train yourself to believe in false things, but you can never KNOW false things (i.e. you can never “know” something to be true when it is in fact false). You can brainwash yourself. Eventually, you will start believing it. You can start making up apparent facts to justify your self-lies. Come on, people do that all the time. It’s called, more or less, rationalizing.
Try to “rationalize” yourself into believing that the Tooth Fairy is real. It is true that people can “rationalize” themselves into believing many things, but not into believing something utterly against their deepest convictions. But, don’t believe me. Try to rationalize yourself into believing that Lucifer is the good guy, it is he that must be worshipped. (After all Lucifer is the “lightbringer”.) See, if you succeed and tell me about the result.
If you truly believe they are not evil, then they are not mortal sins to you if you commit them. The Church nonetheless calls them “mortal sins” because they are grave matter and would technically be mortal sins if the other two requirements are also met. If those requirements are not met, then they are grave sins, and not mortal.
That is excellent news. What it means is that only my conscience is what counts - and nothing else. By the way, we might talk about the idea of “grave matter” - possibly in another thread. It is very probable that our ideas about what constitues “grave matter” is different.
Perhaps, although you have constantly demonstrated that you hold erroneous opinions about what the Church exactly teaches, so maybe, by some chance, you possess a key bit of innocent ignorance.
The point was that unless one accepts God’s existence, it is meaningless to assert that some actions are good and others are evil. Using other words, it was asserted that without “ultimate good”, one is not “entitled” to speak of good and evil. Maybe this is what the Church teaches, and if that is case, then the Church teaches nonsense.
 
If they follow what they preach, they will die by neglecting their body’s needs. If they do not practice what they preach then they are hypocrites.

Our own survival. The proof of the pudding is that it is edible.
What is “death?” Merely another example of our illusory sensory experiences? You can’t prove the validity of our empirical experiences by appealing to further empirical experiences.
Why should I accept it? One man’s vice is another man’s virtue.
Is it?

You openly acknowledge there being goodness in actions and consequences- you desire “good,” “fun,” “love,” and “beauty” in your own life. Certain actions lead to these things, and others do not. It’s as simple as cause and effect. Adultery does not in of itself lead to a stronger love life with your wife. That’s simply how things are.
What is “vice”? What is “virtue”?
Virtue is those habits which lead us to act in such a way that we act in accordance with our end, which is also our own self-interest and the interest of others as well who are in communion with us. Vice is the opposite.

Of course, some situations are much more difficult to judge than others. That’s why we need to start small. As children, we make very basic, very clear moral choices, which then sends us on a path to either virtue and vice. If we begin to practice virtue, then the virtuous course in more difficult situations becomes clearer since our mind is freed from the rule of our passions and inclinations. If we choose vice, then our intellect becomes increasingly clouded, and it gets harder and harder to judge things clearly and climb out of the hole we are digging ourselves into.
Of course I deny “teleology”. Of course I deny “ultimate meanings”, and such. Of course I deny “perfect goodness”, etc… These are undefined, pompous words, without meaning. One can lead a “good” life, if one practices helpfulness when possible, if one avoids hurting others. There is nothing problematic about these endeavors, even if one rejects the “ultimate” stuff.
Well, I think your “good life” is a bit “pompous.” 🙂

Do you realize what you are doing here? By rejecting any ultimate, real meaning behind everything, you make “goodness” a wholly arbitrary human invention. If goodness is made up by people, then you can change goodness however you want. You can say that you can lead a “good life,” but since you are in control of goodness, you are really saying “I can lead life as I want to lead it.” That’s the ultimate power play, and it hasn’t worked out so well in the past.

Sure, you can lead a “good life.” When your own perspective is the definition of goodness, it’s hard not too. Whereas Catholicism demands a voluntary adherence to the objective reality of virtue, atheism makes virtue fake by placing it in the control of human invention.
Not exactly, I find “virtue” an undefined category, which provides no guidelines.
That’s because you reject all teleology. There are no guidelines under atheism. What can you deduce from billions of scientific particles? Nothing beyond the particles themselves and their arrangements. Particles are not good, do not have virtue, and cannot lead a “good life.” Under atheism, there is nothing but countless particles in various combinations, and the deluded human thought that we can make goodness real by fiat. It doesn’t work.
 
Statement of the principle:
Originally Posted by Areopagite
Absolutely. You can train yourself to believe in false things, but you can never KNOW false things (i.e. you can never “know” something to be true when it is in fact false). You can brainwash yourself. Eventually, you will start believing it. You can start making up apparent facts to justify your self-lies. Come on, people do that all the time. It’s called, more or less, rationalizing.
Illustration of that principle:
Try to “rationalize” yourself into believing that the Tooth Fairy is real. It is true that people can “rationalize” themselves into believing many things, but not into believing something utterly against their deepest convictions. But, don’t believe me. Try to rationalize yourself into believing that Lucifer is the good guy, it is he that must be worshipped. (After all Lucifer is the “lightbringer”.) See, if you succeed and tell me about the result.
[RD’s rationalization, in case anyone missed it: “if it’s my ‘deepest conviction,’ then it can’t be a rationalization.”]
 
I grant you that the precise meaning of individual words might be argued about. But the message itself is crystal clear. Not so with the Bible. The message conveyed by the OT is diametrically different from the NT.
The message of the Kama Sutra is clear, eh? Tell me, then, what is the message? Don’t worry, be as shameless as you want. In theory, since you believe that the Kama Sutra is immune to misinterpretation, that all other interpretations will agree with yours. So tell me. What is the overall “message” of the Kama Sutra.

Once again, if you actually think that some ancient texts can possibly be immune to misinterpretation, then I suggest you start studying an ancient language, and you’ll discover that there are always many different interpretations of the most basic ancient text. It’s probably something you just have to learn from experience. That’s just the cold hard truth. You’re out of your field, man, sorry. Unless, of course, you are scholar of ancient languages, in which case I apologize.

Really, though, what’s the overall message of the Kama Sutra?
Ok, lets take an example. OT says: “eye for an eye, tooth for a tooth”. NT says: “do not resist evil” and “turn the other cheeck”. If you would say that the NT overrides the OT, then consider Jesus’s words: “I did not come to abolish the law, rather to uphold it”. And both of those “commands” are presented in unequivocal fashion, without ambiguity. Which one should be followed? Can’t follow both - at the same time.
This, my friend, is a thing deserving of a long answer. I am not qualified to give it in any kind of worthy summary … you might even dip into the Scripture Forum on this one:eek:

But I’ll say that Jesus fulfilled the spirit of the law. There were plenty of laws innumerated in the Old Testament that were not intended to be reflections of unalterable divine law. Some laws were even more along the lines of speed limits … a speed limit is there to aid the protection of society (which is always the goal of every societal law) and yet the speed limit can change, without altering the spirit of the law (i.e. the goal of all laws).

Also, Jesus’ supernatural message was divine love, something that transcends human love … but before the Jews (and really all of humanity) were fit to receive that message in full, they first needed to learn justice (which the OT exemplifies). One must first learn justice before he learns mercy. That’s another aspect of what goes on between the OT and NT.

But I’m not really scratching even the surface, and I’m not a professional Scripture scholar … but that’s something at least.
Nonsense. To my best knowledge not even Catholic philosophers contend that the 5 “proofs” of Aquinas are convincing.
I personally know dozens of Catholic philosophers, and they all agree with Aquinas’ proofs.
And even if they were, they would not be a “proof” of the Christian God - but of course they are not valid.
The knowledge that the God in Aquinas’ proofs are the same as the God in Christianity is only known through supernatural faith, so, yes, there would be no proof of that from natural reason.
If a finite deed is met with an infinite sentence, and that is called “just”, then we have nothing to talk about. If an innocent person is doomed for the act of someone else, and that is called “just”, then there is no common ground for a conversation.
Please re-read my posts, because I clearly said that merely having original sin doesn’t make someone “doomed” (i.e. necessarily going to hell … if that’s what you mean). Here is the link to my previous post:

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6746538&postcount=224

If you don’t understand what I wrote, please be more specific.
 
Try to apply these ideas to a human judge, and see if you call that sentence “just”. Some people - at this point - would bring up the “quod licet Iovi, not licet bovi” - and say that God’s actions and human actions cannot be measured with the same scale. I hope you do not want to commit that fallacy.
Well, you have to explain what you mean by the “same scale” and explain why not using the same scale for God is a fallacy.

Obviously, a single law can allow one person to do one thing and at the same time not allow another person to do the same thing. For example, it would be unlawful for me to go over and destroy Joe’s car (Joe being some random guy). However, it is perfectly lawful for Joe to destroy his own car. So, someone could say, “Hey, that’s not fair, it’s suppose to be equal” but of course that’s absurd. Also, I could even, under certain circumstances, be completely within the law in destroying Joe’s car, if in fact Joe gave me permission.

Now, if you saying something like … since humans can’t simply bring about the death of others as they want, hence God can’t do that either. That would not follow. This is because if God, in fact, created everything … then there is not even one human life that He does not have the right to take back as He wants. This, I think, is completely obvious. So, obviously, there are things that God is allowed to do that humans are not allowed to do. Not a very controversial idea, if you think about it.
Try to “rationalize” yourself into believing that the Tooth Fairy is real. It is true that people can “rationalize” themselves into believing many things, but not into believing something utterly against their deepest convictions.
Well, I’m glad you agree (or seem to agree?) that people CAN make themselves believe things that are against at least some of their convictions. Thus, I hope we can agree that … “You can make yourself believe some things that you know are false.”

Now, whether one can make themselves believe things against their deepest convictions … well, I don’t know. What are you talking about exactly?

In any case, my point stands that people are able to reject the faith while knowing that it is the truth … and so, it is possible for someone to lack faith through their own fault.
But, don’t believe me. Try to rationalize yourself into believing that Lucifer is the good guy, it is he that must be worshipped. (After all Lucifer is the “lightbringer”.) See, if you succeed and tell me about the result.
I’m not going to do that because I believe that’s a sin. But I know people who DO believe that. It’s called the Church of Satan … you know, Satanists? Come on, you’ve heard of them, right?
That is excellent news. What it means is that only my conscience is what counts - and nothing else. By the way, we might talk about the idea of “grave matter” - possibly in another thread. It is very probable that our ideas about what constitues “grave matter” is different.
Yeah, we could open another thread on this. It’s an important issue. But I’m not sure what you mean by “only my conscience is what counts.”
The point was that unless one accepts God’s existence, it is meaningless to assert that some actions are good and others are evil. Using other words, it was asserted that without “ultimate good”, one is not “entitled” to speak of good and evil. Maybe this is what the Church teaches, and if that is case, then the Church teaches nonsense.
Not … entirely sure what you mean. I will say, though, that even if one denies the existence of an “ultimate good” and yet believes in good and evil, that they actually do believe in an ultimate good … but deny they do either because they misunderstand the term or … well … something. There are many reasons why people can think illogical thoughts.
 
This is a joke, right?

If not, there is only one thing to say: Abortion is always a grave sin, and to promote it is heretical, morally wrong, and leads others to scandal.
I remember producing a variation of this argument several years ago. I can’t remember where. However, I did not produce it as an argument in favour of abortion. I dislike any sort of killing. So bear in mind that I am not encouraging Catholics to kill their children but just pointing out what seems to be an inherent logical inconsistency when you take some Catholic beliefs and put them side by side, the conclusions are unpalatable. First I will put forward the argument and at the end some possible solutions that catholics could counter with.
  1. The best possible experience is the Beatific Vision
  2. If this can only be experienced after death
  3. Then death is desirable if the Beatific Vision can be guaranteed
then
  1. Murder is a mortal sin
  2. Those who murder unrepentant go to hell
then
  1. If the Beatific Vision is the best possible experience it is best to die when it is guaranteed than when it is not.
  2. A baptised child who dies before the age of free will is guaranteed the Beatific Vision (On the Beatific Vision of God - Benedictus Deus - Constitution issued by Pope Benedict XII in 1336)
  3. Therefore it is better for the the child to die when the Beatific Vision is guaranteed than to die when it is not i.e in a state of mortal sin.
Then
  1. If a person kills a child assured of the Beatific Vision he breaks God’s law
  2. If he dies unrepentant he goes to hell.
  3. But he guarantees the child experiences the Beatific Vision which is the highest good.
but
  1. If he does not kill the child in this fortunate state the child may lose this guarantee after the age of free will.
  2. The child may later commit a mortal sin, die unrepentant and go to hell.
  3. You, however, save yourself.
then
  1. If putting another’s good before yourself is preferable to saving yourself.
  2. Then putting the child’s salvation at risk to assure your own is selfish and undesirable.
Unfortunately, the argument, understandably, produces a lot of horror and most people are not prepared to examine the logic. So it tends to be dismissed out of hand as not worthy of consideration.

So I would like to suggest some possible solutions for the Catholic.
  1. On the Beatific Vision of God - Benedictus Deus - Constitution issued by Pope Benedict XII in 1336. Although this constitution is said to be in force for all time and said with apostolic authority and is a definition - it does not meet all the requirements for infallible dogma.
  2. Therefore it is not safe to assume that the baptised child who dies before the age of free will is assured the Beatific Vision
  3. Therefore to kill that child achieves nothing but one’s own damnation and the child’s unnecessary suffering.
or
  1. On the Beatific Vision of God - Benedictus Deus - Constitution issued by Pope Benedict XII in 1336. This is dogma but
  2. It is not possible to know when each individual child achieves free will.
  3. There is the risk of killing a child in a state of mortal sin and it would not achieve the Beatiific Vision
  4. Therefore both child and killer may end up hell.
    5 This is undesirable.
Other possibilities are that the Beatific Vision is possible in this life and / or God has a special mission for each child which would result in more people being saved than lost. But I haven’t thought about those latter two possibilities and don’t know if they are consistent with Catholic doctrine.

Any thoughts?
 
It is very simple and straightforward.

Take a zygote, freshly impregnated, before it even leaves for the trip to the uterus. According to the theists, it (definitely not a “he” or a “she”) is already a “human being”. It never gets implanted into the uterus wall, just gets flushed out from the woman’s system. What will be its fate? Will it get into heaven, or will be sent to hell? The limbo is no longer an offical doctrine - so we can leave that out from consideration. Surely it will not get to hell, not even the most conservative Catholic would assert that. So it will go into heaven, in some capacity. There are some people who say that it will not get to the beatific vision (whatever that means). But even a “low-level” heaven is pretty good.

Now, the second possibility is that the zygote gets implanted into the uterus wall, but for some reason or another, it gets spontaneously aborted. The result is the same, it will get into heaven. Good outcome.

Suppose that the abortion is not spontaneous, it is volitional. For the fetus the outcome is not diifferent, still a nice, cozy, warm place in heaven. Good outcome again. So, from a purely pragmatic standpoint, abortion is good. No risk of hell, only an assured place on God’s bosom.

But, what about the woman who makes this decision? Well, it depends on her intent. Catholics, (unlike some Protestants) take the intent into consideration, and not just the act itself. If her intent is to assure a place in heaven, she acts out of love, performing an act in the fetus’s best interest. Furthermore, she sacrifices herself, her future place in heaven, which is the highest form of love. So, she is not a criminal, she does not sin, she puts the well-being of the fetus in front of her own. Thus she is to be praised and a self-sacrificing person, who risks everything just to assure the fetus’s place.

Moreover, she prevents the possible “slip” of her child, who might commot some mortal sin and consequently would be confined to eternal damnation. From a simple risk-benefit analysis, it is her optimal solution. The fetus will get an assured place in heaven. Her fate is also assured, as a self-sacrificing person, who exhibits the highest form of love. Surely God will take her intent into consideration.

So, go and abort all your children. It is in the best interest of the child, and in the best interest of the mother. Be careful, however, not to be selfish, and do not perform the abortion for some temporal gain. Always cast your eyes on the heaven. God will understand your motive, and will reward for it.
I stand by my bishop on this one: Take my life instead of the poor child’s. I’ve been baptized and have gone to confession; I’m ready. Give the child a chance.

Hope this helps,

-Ryan Vilbig
ryan.vilbig@gmail.com
 
  1. If putting another’s good before yourself is preferable to saving yourself.
  2. Then putting the child’s salvation at risk to assure your own is selfish and undesirable.
Unfortunately, the argument, understandably, produces a lot of horror and most people are not prepared to examine the logic. So it tends to be dismissed out of hand as not worthy of consideration.
It is most definitely true that you have to put your own good ahead of others on the question of salvation. You can call this selfish, if you mean that is looking out for your own ultimate good before others (I would merely call this self-love).

There is nothing really horrific about this logic considering that the child will only go to hell if the child choses to (after he reaches the age of reason). It’s a person’s own fault if they go to hell. If damnation was just issued randomly and by chance, then you would have a point. But it’s not.
  1. On the Beatific Vision of God - Benedictus Deus - Constitution issued by Pope Benedict XII in 1336. This is dogma but
  2. It is not possible to know when each individual child achieves free will.
  3. There is the risk of killing a child in a state of mortal sin and it would not achieve the Beatiific Vision
  4. Therefore both child and killer may end up hell.
    5 This is undesirable.
This is not a bad idea … something I’m open to. For all we know, the baby could have some amount of reason enough to be capable of mortal sin. Obviously, the age of reason comes at different times for different people. Genius kids might have it really early on … even in the womb, though? Who knows. There is definitely not enough certainty to … say for certain … especially when questioning whether to kill the child or not.
 
What is “death?” Merely another example of our illusory sensory experiences?
Are you just pulling my leg here? Sensory experiences are not illusory. Death is real.
You can’t prove the validity of our empirical experiences by appealing to further empirical experiences.
Actually, that is exactly what has to be done, to defend against a possible “misinterpretation” of the real raw data provided by the senses. To say that our senses might be “deceiving” is incorrect. The data is there, though we might interpret them incorrectly.

If we see a mirage, we might incorrectly interpret it as a lake in the distance. If we can get closer, and the lake is still there, if we can drink its water, if we can immerse ourselves in it, then to maintain that we “might” still be “deceived” by our senses is impossible. Furthermore, if one maintains that the sensory (name removed by moderator)ut might be “deceiving”, just what method can they use to substantiate that claim? They cannot use their senses, can they?

The whole concept of “sensory illusion” comes from the fact that vision can easily be misinterpreted. Can you incorrectly interpret the smell of a stinking carcass and “think” that you just smelled a rose? Can you misinterpret the prick of a needle and think that you just have been gently touched by a velvet glove? Can you mistake the taste of chocolate for the bitter taste of quinine? Or the sound of a thunderclap for the Ninth Symphony?
You openly acknowledge there being goodness in actions and consequences- you desire “good,” “fun,” “love,” and “beauty” in your own life. Certain actions lead to these things, and others do not. It’s as simple as cause and effect. Adultery does not in of itself lead to a stronger love life with your wife. That’s simply how things are.
Usually correct, but there have been exceptions. It did happen a “dried up” marital relationship became invigorated by the “straying” of one or both of the spouses. And there are open marriages, where both parties, openly accept and engage in outside relationships, and these endeavors strengthen the marriage. I wonder what was your reason to bring up that example.
Virtue is those habits which lead us to act in such a way that we act in accordance with our end, which is also our own self-interest and the interest of others as well who are in communion with us. Vice is the opposite.
I would call that reason. “Virtue” is a loaded term.
Do you realize what you are doing here? By rejecting any ultimate, real meaning behind everything, you make “goodness” a wholly arbitrary human invention.
Not really. I am looking out the window right now and see a nice quiet rain. Rain is good for the vegetation, but too much rain is not good at all. “Natural” good objective, without human interpretation. “Moral” good is, however, a human invention. It is still not arbitrary. Also, just what is the “ultimate, real meaning behind everything”? Can you define it?
If goodness is made up by people, then you can change goodness however you want. You can say that you can lead a “good life,” but since you are in control of goodness, you are really saying “I can lead life as I want to lead it.” That’s the ultimate power play, and it hasn’t worked out so well in the past.
True, it gives no certainty. But to wish to have certainty is a pie in the sky. Most certainly I lead my life exactly as I want to, and I call it a “good” life. However, my actions will be measured by the cold, hard forces of the unforgiving nature and they will be measured by the reciprocal actions of other humans. This feedback loop will validate or invalidate my idea about the quality (or goodness) of my life. And that is the only validation process I want, and need.
Sure, you can lead a “good life.” When your own perspective is the definition of goodness, it’s hard not too. Whereas Catholicism demands a voluntary adherence to the objective reality of virtue, atheism makes virtue fake by placing it in the control of human invention.
What is this “objective reality of virtue”? Presumably it has something to with God…
That’s because you reject all teleology. There are no guidelines under atheism. What can you deduce from billions of scientific particles? Nothing beyond the particles themselves and their arrangements. Particles are not good, do not have virtue, and cannot lead a “good life.” Under atheism, there is nothing but countless particles in various combinations, and the deluded human thought that we can make goodness real by fiat. It doesn’t work.
Ouch, this hurts. I never thought that you (of all people) will bring up this nonsense of “reductionism”. I hope it was just a momentary lapse on your part.
 
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