I know nothing of the man, his thoughts or the book. What I do know is that the suggestion that “existence was practically bound to come into being from a state of nothing and that it’s completely logical.” is entirely meaningless on one level, and patently false on a second.
Level 1: Of course existence - in the universal, essential and non-particular context - was bound to come from nothingness - they are fundamental mutually exclusive states. If one exists the other is excluded. There is nothing else into which existence bursts forth except into nothingness. If there were such a thing then existence would already be present in that thing. As such, on this level, the statement seems basically to define what nothingness and existence are: two fundamentally exclusive states and the appearance of either precedes the other. To claim, on this level, that it is “logical”, however, is meaningless - it is a definition of terms.
Level 2: In the words used above the suggestion can be inferred that the proximate cause of existence is the state of nothingness. This, is patently false. For if nothingness contains potential, or if it is “unstable”, then it is no longer nothingness, it has both potential and instability which represent a presence of something and exclude the concomitant existence of nothingness.