Hello, Clem. . .
It not a dogmatic statement that falls under Divine Revelation with certain guidance regarding faith or morals. No pope can bind his successors with regard to development of doctrine, and we understand that the Church now refers to these older theories as theological speculation, without any promulgation to date of a defined dogma.
It is ,of course, permissible to question the authority of the document and the accuracy of the interpretation so long as it can be proven that the authority and/or translation is suspect.
It has always been a matter of frustration to me what papal documents can be considered infallible. Most people recognise ecumenical councils and the pope speaking ex cathedra as being infallible when making definitions on faith and morals but if I quote from papal bulls, constitutions etc then their authority is sometimes questioned. Sometimes with good reason but at other times it is a reflex response in order to defend an entrenched position.
At this point I want to challenge the statement that* “No pope can bind his successors with regard to development of doctrine”* by adding that the pope certainly can make dogmas that are irreformable and development cannot include the flat contradiction of previous dogmas. Development has to be in agreement with previous dogma by explaining it more fully.
So when the Council of Florence says that those who die with mortal sin and original sin alone go to hell then one cannot have a later “development” that says that either of those two categories may actually go to heaven.
As your response is with regard to “Effraenatam” it would be good to at least consider what authority it has for all Christians. So, as a preliminary I wanted to show some of the claims of Vatican 1 regarding the primacy of the Pope and then apply them to Effraenatam.
- The pope is the highest court of appeal in terms of jurisdiction, his judgment cannot be overturned by an ecumenical council as his authority is higher.
*The sentence of the Apostolic See (than which there is no higher authority) is not subject to revision by anyone, nor may anyone lawfully pass judgment thereupon [54]. And so they stray from the genuine path of truth who maintain that it is lawful to appeal from the judgments of the Roman pontiffs to an ecumenical council as if this were an authority superior to the Roman Pontiff. * Chapter 3:8 Vatican 1
- That when the pope speaks ex cathedra on matters of faith and morals he does NOT need the consent of the church to make his decisions irreformable which of course means no one in the future can change them.
Therefore, such definitions of the Roman Pontiff are of themselves, and not by the consent of the Church, irreformable. Chapter 4:9 Vatican 1
The question then is whether “Effraenatam” constitutes a pope speaking ex cathedra and making an irreformable dogma.
Vatican 1 gives the criteria
4:9. Therefore, faithfully adhering to the tradition received from the beginning of the Christian faith, to the glory of God our savior, for the exaltation of the Catholic religion and for the salvation of the Christian people, with the approval of the Sacred Council, we teach and define as a divinely revealed dogma that when the Roman Pontiff speaks EX CATHEDRA, that is, when, in the exercise of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, in virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole Church, he possesses, by the divine assistance promised to him in blessed Peter, that infallibility which the divine Redeemer willed his Church to enjoy in defining doctrine concerning faith or morals. Therefore, such definitions of the Roman Pontiff are of themselves, and not by the consent of the Church, irreformable.
- **Is he speaking ex cathedra? ** Sixtus seems to claim yes. *“We who are placed by the Lord in the supreme throne of justice”*Effraenatam. Remember Vatican 1’s statement that the Pope has the highest jurisdiction and that his judgments “is not subject to revision by anyone”
2.
Is it a definition of faith and morals Well we can safely say that abortion is a matter of morals and he defines that it is wrong and why it is wrong. Again vatican 1 says the Pope has to be defining an issue faith and morals
- ]Does he need the consent of the rest of the church and does he believe his statement is irreformable? Not according to Vatican 1 and not according to Sixtus in Effraenatam
*We decree that in all aforementioned things all ordinary and delegate Judges, even the Apostolic Palace Auditors and Cardinals of the Holy Roman Church have had taken away from them by Us the authority of judging otherwise and the faculty of otherwise interpreting.
Anything done to the contrary knowingly or by ignorance by any authority in any instance is null and void.*Effraenatam
So, this is my argument that Sixtus meets the criteria of Vatican 1 of a Pope speaking ex cathedra. I once did have a catholic tell me that Effraenatam was not speaking on matters of faith and morals as “abortion” is not a moral matter which did make my eyes pop open somewhat!
So in short
1 Sixtus claims to sit on the highest throne of justice ie ex cathedra
2. He defines that abortion is immoral and why
3.He states that the aborted loses its soul and does not go to heaven
4. He declares this to be an irreformable matter and therefore infallible statement.
and I argue that all this is in agreement with the criteria that Vatican one says a pope needs to be speaking infallibly.