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Michaeljc4
Guest
I am trying to understand ‘proportionate reasons.’ For example, the candidate who is opposed to abortion (even if they will not actively seek to end legal abortions) but has made it clear that (s)he will actively vote to dismantle the social safety net–reduce spending on food assistance, disability payments, government sponsored health care programs, etc.–is still the correct choice over a pro-choice candidate who isn’t not actively seeking to promote abortion?When a Catholic does not share a candidate’s stand in favor of abortion and/or euthanasia, but votes for that candidate for other reasons, it is considered remote material cooperation, which can be permitted in the presence of proportionate reasons strictly defined.
In other words, a candidate can call themselves ‘pro-life’ but do very little to actually end abortion, while doing a great deal to–in the words of the Bible–‘grind the face of the poor.’ Conversely, a ‘pro-choice’ candidate may not actively seek to increase the number of abortions in America, but be a strong champion of programs to help the weakest among us. I find it difficult to believe that voting for the ‘pro-life’ candidate, in this instance, is worse than voting for the ‘pro-choice’ one.
Can you all help me with this? I have seen, again and again, Republican politicians claim the mantle of ‘pro-life’ while they, first, do nothing to end abortion, and second, make the lives of the weakest among is completely miserable. Likewise, I have seen “pro-choice” Democrats who will not actively try to expand abortion ‘rights’ (like championing federal funding) but do a great deal to help the weak and the vulnerable. There is some moral algebra here that I am not getting. SOS!