]QUOTE=Oreoracle;8240465]You have me intrigued my friend,

please explain how it is that time passes at different speeds for different people.
This article will probably explain it better than I could:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special_relativity#Consequences
Pay particularly close attention to the “consequences” section. All of these have been verified experimentally as well as mathematically.
Or how can people move at different speeds (and I don’t mean running vs. walking

)?
Well, as you’ll see, relativity only becomes noticeable at significant fractions of the speed of light. However,
very small differences in the experience of time can be measured with extremely accurate clocks. It has been shown that a person travelling by airplane will experience a few nanoseconds of time less than a person who is at rest.
Regarding your quote, technically a person who is running is experiencing less time than a person who is walking, but the difference wouldn’t be noticeable.
How is time subjective? Isn’t it measable?
Yes, but as it turns out, even if two people at different speeds measure the duration of an event correctly, the results would still be different. Since time varies from observer to observer (at different speeds), it is subjective. Surprisingly though, getting different measurements of time does not result in any inconsistencies in physics.
I like how you think “outside the box”. Their is good in this thought processes. Expand to the limits is what it is all about to me too. Great minds, think alike.
Thank you.
But how can different answers, both be right? Give me an example when looking at the whole picture.
And that, my friend, is the surprising thing. There isn’t a whole picture with regard to time. There is no such thing as “absolute time”. However, differing measurements don’t produce inconsistencies, because the special theory of relativity takes the different speeds into account. I’m not quite educated enough (yet) to explain why, but trust me on this one.
What is it that the majority of relavists believe that is different than denying an absolute truth’s existance?
Basically, relativists are saying that “truth” only applies to certain fields, e.g., science and math, but not other fields, such as ethics, art, etc. I mean, you wouldn’t say that a painting is beautiful, and that your opinion is absolutely true, right? You would agree that different people simply see things differently when it comes to aesthetics, even if their knowledge and rationality are equal. The same applies to ethics. You can take two more or less equally knowledgeable and rational people from different societies and they would have different notions of what is moral. It’s not that one understands more of some knind of “objective morality”, becase their knowledge is equal. It just boils down to the fact that they have different preferences, and therefore different opinions on ethics.
Based on the amount of diagreement in the world pertaining to what is right and wrong, do you find it surprising that our conception of morality is dependent on our perspectives?
If you deny absolute truth don’t you deny the existance of truth period?
Well, I phrase things differently than most relativists. I wouldn’t say that some moral statements are “true for you”, I would just say that moral statements don’t have truth values. I think that, in spite of the differences in phrasing, we’re essentially driving at the same point, though.
If an equation is balanced it isn’t wrong

. Both sides equal each other=equation. In this case, both sides of the equation are IDENTICAL that you call wrong. Not following your logic.
Well, infinity isn’t a precisely defined “value”. For example, two infinite values can be of different sizes, and both would be expressed by the same symbol. For example, there are an infinite number of integers, and an infinite number of odd numbers, but you wouldn’t say that both of those infinite values are equal.
I hope I’ve answered most of your questions. I’m running late for something.