Yes, it does.
The purpose of marriage is the procreation and raising of children in the faith.Does love play into this at all? Marriage is a vocation to family. That is the natural outcome of marriage.
A just reason must conform to objective moral criteria. It must be a serious reason, and not born out of selfish desire-- for example, wanting to travel, have a boat, save up a bunch of money, excel in business, etc. Those motives do not conform with objective moral criteria, that being the fact that marriage is ordered to procreation.
The purpose of sex is the procreationg of children and the mutual affection of spouses. The only proper use of the sexual faculties is within marriage.I understand the sexual faculties are reserved for marriage.
The Church does not tell us “how to have sex”. The Church teaches us God’s divind law. God created sexuality with purpose and order. The Church teaches us good from evil, ordered from disordered, and the meaning of our sexuality. Sin has darkened our intellect and weakened our will-- therefore, we ourselves often seek what is disordered. The Church teaches the Truth of Christ regarding our sexuality.
Sexual intercourse is the normal expression of spousal love.What if one is just satisfied with cuddling and holding hands? It is an integral part of marriage. Its natural end is children.
Not in my opinion.
Have you read any of John Paul II’s materials on sexuality, or those of Christopher West who does a good job of making those writings more accessible to the average person? Have you read encyclicals such as Casti Connubii, Humanae Vitae, and Familieris Consortio in addition to the Catechism entries on the Sacrament of Marriage and the Sixth Commandment?