Acts 1:11 (Please Read)

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Acts 1:11 is a widely known and quoted verse, but I’ve never understood its popular and common interpretation. The interpretation explains that the angels inform the “Men of Galilee”, after they watch Jesus ascend to Heaven, that he’ll return the same way as they had just seen him leave. From Heaven–or the Sky. But in any of editions of the Bible that I read (ESV, NASB, NIV, DRA, etc.), that interpretation completely ignores the first and commencing line of the angels*** “Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into the sky” (NASB)***. The angels are clearly informing them while they’re *** “gazing intently into the sky” ***that Jesus will not return the way he had just left. The angels, in the next line, instead seem to be saying–even though obliquely–that Jesus will return just in the same way he came and left. That is, from my interpretation, be born once again.

Can anyone understand my confusion of this popular interpretation of the verse? Here it is in full from Acts 1:9-11 (NASB):

*"9 And after He had said these things, He was lifted up while they were looking on, and a cloud received Him out of their sight. 10 And as they were gazing intently into the sky while He was going, behold, two men in white clothing stood beside them. 11 They also said, “Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into the sky? This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in just the same way as you have *watched Him go into heaven.”
🙂 however,- look at " saw Him" “watched Him” that in Acts 1:11 said our lord will come in the same way as they saw him go into heaven. that as they were watching, he was lifted up, our Lord will come in the same way as they saw him go into heaven. that you can not just see half sentence.

**Acts 1
6 So when they had come together, they asked him, ‘Lord, is this the time when you will restore the kingdom to Israel?’ 7He replied, ‘It is not for you to know the times or periods that the Father has set by his own authority. 8But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.’ 9When he had said this, as they were watching, he was lifted up, and a cloud took him out of their sight. 10While he was going and they were gazing up towards heaven, suddenly two men in white robes stood by them. 11They said, ‘Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking up towards heaven? This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in the same way as you saw him go into heaven.’
**
 
Sure, Jesus and the Logos are the same person now, but not before the incarnation. Before the incarnation, there was no Jesus. Therefore, if the Logos were to reincarnate, there would no longer be any Jesus as the Logos would become a different human being. I don’t see how it would still be “old Jesus” if no physical or familial properties applicable to Jesus (in human terms) applied to this new person. A human being is a body-soul composite. If all that is important in terms of human identity and being is the soul, and not the body, what you’re saying would be fine, but that’s not the case. That is why Jesus physically rose from the dead, why he still had the marks of the crucifixion, why people could still recognise him as Jesus. Jesus, the Second Person of the Trinity, the Divine Word, now has a resurrected human body and this body is integral to his identity.

No, I’m not saying God is essentially different in his past manifestations (I wouldn’t call them incarnations), but once God took on human nature then He threw in His lot with humanity, and what it means to be human.

Would you say, then, that a new incarnation of “Jesus” could be female?
Jonathan, the only difference between God’s manifestations in the Pentateuch and as Jesus in the New Testament is that he chose to be born and live under the guise as a natural, human being. All in order to humble himself and show you his Love for you by physically suffering and dying. This is the central theme of the NT.
Water does have the necessary property of wetness - if God changes that, which I guess He can, it wouldn’t be water any more. Just like, a circle has the necessary property of roundness, or a human being of free will. I suppose God could call a square a circle or make a human without free will but then these things would change what they are. Similarly, “dry” water would no longer be water, but some other substance.

I don’t know how Jesus is going to return. All I know, is that he can’t be reincarnated and remain Jesus.
Whatever that new substance would be named Jonathan, it would still be described–scratch that–nonetheless called dry water. ; )
 
Jonathan, the only difference between God’s manifestations in the Pentateuch and as Jesus in the New Testament is that he chose to be born and live under the guise as a natural, human being. All in order to humble himself and show you his Love for you by physically suffering and dying. This is the central theme of the NT.
“Under the guise”??? Jesus was an actual human being, not divinity doing pantomime! There is a vast difference between God’s manifestation in the Old Testament and the Incarnation (why don’t you think the Church calls “the burning bush” an Incarnation?). God didn’t take on the natures of the things He manifested as, for example, a wind or fire. However, with Jesus He did take on human nature and joined it to His divine nature.

Sure, God did take on human nature to show His love - but also to redeem human nature, to raise up human nature and draw us into His family.
Whatever that new substance would be named Jonathan, it would still be described–scratch that–nonetheless called dry water. ; )
The same way, I guess, you could call “round square”. 🤷
 
“Under the guise”??? Jesus was an actual human being, not divinity doing pantomime! There is a vast difference between God’s manifestation in the Old Testament and the Incarnation (why don’t you think the Church calls “the burning bush” an Incarnation?). God didn’t take on the natures of the things He manifested as, for example, a wind or fire. However, with Jesus He did take on human nature and joined it to His divine nature.

Sure, God did take on human nature to show His love - but also to redeem human nature, to raise up human nature and draw us into His family.

The same way, I guess, you could call “round square”. 🤷
The reason why we call it the Incarnation is for that exact reason I explained. He was born and was not manifested out of the ether. He suffered and died like a Man as method for your salvation to create the paradigm of Love and Selflessness to live by. Whether St. Anselm’s Satisfaction Theory, Origen’s Ransom Theory, etc. have any basis when Jesus returns–they explicitly do not change what Jesus says himself he did everything for. For his love for you–as an example.

You’re playing human, semantical games of logical sophistry that are bound to God’s command–that really have no analogy to the matter at hand. The Logos is Jesus. And Jesus is the Logos. Remember what Jesus said of John the Baptist? That he was Elijah? Do you doubt even the Lord’s words?
 
The reason why we call it the Incarnation is for that exact reason I explained. He was born and was not manifested out of the ether. He suffered and died like a Man as method for your salvation to create the paradigm of Love and Selflessness to live by. Whether St. Anselm’s Satisfaction Theory, Origen’s Ransom Theory, etc. have any basis when Jesus returns–they explicitly do not change what Jesus says himself he did everything for. For his love for you–as an example.

You’re playing human, semantical games of logical sophistry that are bound to God’s command–that really have no analogy to the matter at hand. The Logos is Jesus. And Jesus is the Logos. Remember what Jesus said of John the Baptist? That he was Elijah? Do you doubt even the Lord’s words?
But it was more than God being born - He literally became a human being, took on human nature. God, the Almighty, now and forever has a human nature too. Yes, He did that for love of us and to show His love, but also to raise us up, to bring us into His divine life, and to ontologically redeem human nature. That’s why I say it’s more than an example. Yes, it obviously is an example, but Jesus never spoke of his sacrificial death as an example: he spoke of it as atonement for sins. So, I think there is more depth to what Jesus did.

Ummm are you saying John the Baptist was literally Elijah? Surely what Jesus meant is that John the Baptist fulfilled Elijah’s role as the harbinger of the Messiah, as we find in Micah.
 
But it was more than God being born - He literally became a human being, took on human nature. God, the Almighty, now and forever has a human nature too. Yes, He did that for love of us and to show His love, but also to raise us up, to bring us into His divine life, and to ontologically redeem human nature. That’s why I say it’s more than an example. Yes, it obviously is an example, but Jesus never spoke of his sacrificial death as an example: he spoke of it as atonement for sins. So, I think there is more depth to what Jesus did.

Ummm are you saying John the Baptist was literally Elijah? Surely what Jesus meant is that John the Baptist fulfilled Elijah’s role as the harbinger of the Messiah, as we find in Micah.
“Fulfilled Elijah’s role as the harbinger”? What kind of prevaricating language is this? Please read Malachi again. Every modern Jew will laugh at your interpretation. His return is embedded in their interpretation and folklore. “Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet…” What significance is it of “sending Elijah” if it’s an essentially different person?

It is likely Elijah/John will arrive even again before the second coming.
 
“Fulfilled Elijah’s role as the harbinger”? What kind of prevaricating language is this? Please read Malachi again. Every modern Jew will laugh at your interpretation. His return is embedded in their interpretation and folklore. “Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet…” What significance is it of “sending Elijah” if it’s an essentially different person?

It is likely Elijah/John will arrive even again before the second coming.
Well, it is the predominant (by which I mean practically 100%) interpretation of this relationship between John and Elijah throughout Christian history, so I assume it carries some weight.

So, John the Baptist is actually Elijah?

Why then:
(i) Did he deny it? (John 1:24)
and
(ii) Was he able to be Elijah and John the Baptist at the same time, since Elijah appeared to Jesus at the Transfiguration while John was still around?

Again, if John the Baptist was Elijah reincarnated, that would mean Elijah would no longer exists, but then he exists at the Transfiguration.

Moreover, the Catholic Church specifically rejects reincarnation.
 
Jonathan, the only difference between God’s manifestations in the Pentateuch and as Jesus in the New Testament is that he chose to be born and live under the guise as a natural, human being. All in order to humble himself and show you his Love for you by physically suffering and dying. This is the central theme of the NT.
Jesus did not live under the guise of being human. This is Gnosticism!!!

He was true God and true Man.
 
Well, it is the predominant (by which I mean practically 100%) interpretation of this relationship between John and Elijah throughout Christian history, so I assume it carries some weight.

So, John the Baptist is actually Elijah?

Why then:
(i) Did he deny it? (John 1:24)
and
(ii) Was he able to be Elijah and John the Baptist at the same time, since Elijah appeared to Jesus at the Transfiguration while John was still around?

Again, if John the Baptist was Elijah reincarnated, that would mean Elijah would no longer exists, but then he exists at the Transfiguration.

Moreover, the Catholic Church specifically rejects reincarnation.
Jonathan, why does the Book of Malachi even mention Elijah returning? An no, it is not the predominant interpretation that John the Baptist wasn’t Elijah. The main issue we have of it’s interpretation–that John is Elijah–is that the Malachi prophecy seems to indicate Elijah’s return before Jesus’s Day of Judgement–and not his first coming. This is probably still the case. But it explicitly does not rule out that Elijah would come back similarly before Jesus’s first advent.

“But I tell you, Elijah has already come, and they did not recognize him…” (Matthew 17)
“Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the coming…” (Malachi 4)

I’m sorry, if John is an essentially different personhood, then by your metric of scripture, the verses concerning the second coming of Jesus could imply an essentially different personhood. And I guess that proves your argument–if I accept it–as to how Jesus could come reborn!!

Lastly, John the Baptist or Elijah was dead before the Transfiguration.
 
Jesus did not live under the guise of being human. This is Gnosticism!!!

He was true God and true Man.
Did you not read the sentence after that? Are you so daft? ***Of course ***he was a human being, as I say, it was all in order so that he may humble himself, physically suffer, and die. Please don’t cherry-pick words out of context.
 
Did you not read the sentence after that? Are you so daft? ***Of course ***he was a human being, as I say, it was all in order so that he may humble himself, physically suffer, and die. Please don’t cherry-pick words out of context.
“Cherry pick”? Isn’t that the pot calling out the kettle here? You take a passage with a long established interpretation, and then insult everybody who disagrees agrees with your imaginative reinterpretation based on stretching the original wording beyond recognition.

Your interpretation, which seems to morph continuously to deflect criticism, borders on Gnosticism, claiming that “Jesus” is a figure who can have more than one human nature, thus allowing him to be “reborn”.
 
“Cherry pick”? Isn’t that the pot calling out the kettle here? You take a passage with a long established interpretation, and then insult everybody who disagrees agrees with your imaginative reinterpretation based on stretching the original wording beyond recognition.

Your interpretation, which seems to morph continuously to deflect criticism, borders on Gnosticism, claiming that “Jesus” is a figure who can have more than one human nature, thus allowing him to be “reborn”.
Gnosticism is the belief that Jesus’s earthly existence was a phantasm–meaning entirely non-physical. I’m clearly not advocating that belief if you’re following any of my responses, as I’m stressing that the ***only reason ***God became Jesus was to humble himself as a Human and experience physical pain and death for your sins.

Runningdude, I’m not insulting anyone. I’m just trying to remind everyone that scripture is often very cleverly oblique, and it’s interpretation is an even matter of discussion concerning Jesus himself. Why do you think Jews even exist today?

Most importantly, I’m not claiming any position as exactly "more tenable" than the other. This position I’m taking has substance for interpretation, and in my opinion, clears a major headache for some Christians that have a hard time believing Jesus will arrive in the Sky while you’re minding your kids at the playground. Do you see where I’m even coming from?
 
Well, it is the predominant (by which I mean practically 100%) interpretation of this relationship between John and Elijah throughout Christian history, so I assume it carries some weight.

So, John the Baptist is actually Elijah?

Why then:
(i) Did he deny it? (John 1:24)
and
(ii) Was he able to be Elijah and John the Baptist at the same time, since Elijah appeared to Jesus at the Transfiguration while John was still around?

Again, if John the Baptist was Elijah reincarnated, that would mean Elijah would no longer exists, but then he exists at the Transfiguration.

Moreover, the Catholic Church specifically rejects reincarnation.
Moreover Jonathan, by your thread of reasoning the Jesus who was reincarnated was not Jesus–but a different person, just as a theoretical reborn Jesus. After all, the real Jesus died a human death. Do you understand the logic you’re using?

I’d like to point out a very relevant passage concerning the idea of reincarnation in the dialogues of Jesus–apart from the verses concerning John the Baptist as Elijah:

“As he walked along, he saw a man blind from birth. His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” Jesus answered, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned; he was born blind so that God’s works might be revealed in him.” (John 9:1-3) NRSV-CE

Notice that the disciples imply a belief in reincarnation by asking whether the blind man sinned before he was born. Jesus had the opportunity to disabuse of this belief right here and there, but he chose not to. After all, he claimed that John was Elijah.
 
Mark, why didn’t Jesus arrive from the sky in the first place?
Tim, I don’t think this question is relevant to the passage we are discussing. I think it is a strained interpretation to say that when the angels say, “This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in just the same way as you have watched Him go into heaven” that they mean you saw a human body leave and he will return in a human body–that the “way” is a human body --that interpretation seems, to me, to fly in the face of the text and the rest of Scripture.

You’ve got to make a better case for your position that “the angels are clearly informing them while they’re ‘gazing intently into the sky’ that Jesus will not return the way he had just left” as that seems to contradict the plain text and it is obviously not clear that the angels are saying “that Jesus will return in the same way he came and left” because as you say, “The angels…instead seem to be saying–even though obliguely”–if it were clear you would not be saying “seem to be saying”. Plus the angels really don’t say anything about how Jesus originally came.

It should also be noted that verse 10 simply says “two men in white clothing stood beside them.” It does not say how long they stood there before speaking. You have come to the conclusion that it was immediate–but that is not required.

Perhaps we should also look at verses 9 and 10. Verse 9 ends with a cloud receiving Jesus “out of their sight”. Verse 10 continues “And as they were gazing intently into the sky while He was going” so there seems to be some flexibility to the timing. We need to keep in mind we are not reading a scientific orderly report–that is not the intent of the passage–it seems like your interpretation hinges on it being so–on them gazing as He goes with the two men in white speaking as he goes. Perhaps we should look at the original text and not an english translation–perhaps that would shed some additional light on the passage.

When he does come again–what is he coming to do? How do the passages regarding his second coming and his judging the living and the dead fit i with your interpretation?

Anyway I remain unconvinced by your arguments to date as I am sure you remain unmoved by the objections raised by others to your interpretation. I wish you well.

The peace of Christ,
Mark
 
Tim, I don’t think this question is relevant to the passage we are discussing. I think it is a strained interpretation to say that when the angels say, “This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in just the same way as you have watched Him go into heaven” that they mean you saw a human body leave and he will return in a human body–that the “way” is a human body --that interpretation seems, to me, to fly in the face of the text and the rest of Scripture.

You’ve got to make a better case for your position that “the angels are clearly informing them while they’re ‘gazing intently into the sky’ that Jesus will not return the way he had just left” as that seems to contradict the plain text and it is obviously not clear that the angels are saying “that Jesus will return in the same way he came and left” because as you say, “The angels…instead seem to be saying–even though obliguely”–if it were clear you would not be saying “seem to be saying”. Plus the angels really don’t say anything about how Jesus originally came.

It should also be noted that verse 10 simply says “two men in white clothing stood beside them.” It does not say how long they stood there before speaking. You have come to the conclusion that it was immediate–but that is not required.

Perhaps we should also look at verses 9 and 10. Verse 9 ends with a cloud receiving Jesus “out of their sight”. Verse 10 continues “And as they were gazing intently into the sky while He was going” so there seems to be some flexibility to the timing. We need to keep in mind we are not reading a scientific orderly report–that is not the intent of the passage–it seems like your interpretation hinges on it being so–on them gazing as He goes with the two men in white speaking as he goes. Perhaps we should look at the original text and not an english translation–perhaps that would shed some additional light on the passage.

When he does come again–what is he coming to do? How do the passages regarding his second coming and his judging the living and the dead fit i with your interpretation?

Anyway I remain unconvinced by your arguments to date as I am sure you remain unmoved by the objections raised by others to your interpretation. I wish you well.

The peace of Christ,
Mark
First off Mark, I’m not saying my interpretation is exactly more tenable than any other. But I do think the passage on its own terms–in its local context–has some mysterious phrasing and context. Here below I highlight what these are:

*“And when he had said these things, while they looked on, he was raised up: and a cloud received him out of their sight. And while they were beholding him going up to heaven, behold two men stood by them in white garments. Who also said: Ye men of Galilee, why stand you looking up to heaven? This Jesus who is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come, as you have seen him going into heaven.” *(DRA)

First off, it is clear in the passage that the angels appear while they’re watching him ascend. Secondly, their statement “why stand (you) looking up to heaven?” is introduced with the words “Who also said”. This implies, at least in my grammatical opinion, a non-imperative statement. That is, that statement could very well be made not to be interpreted as the Angels chiding them towards their mission. After all, that last appearance of Jesus–after 3 years of preparation–was doing just that. Reminding them about their mission one last time. Lastly, my interpretation is the only interpretation I know that interprets the Angel’s statements* in relation and context* with each other.

I do think the question as to why Jesus–or the Logos–didn’t arrive from the Sky in the first place is profound. It’s very relevant–in my opinion–to the literally-interpreted eschatology of his arrival "on clouds" by reframing the discussion back to what Jesus was essentially about. Why didn’t Jesus do everything he did as the phantasm of Gnostic belief? One reason. His humility. Which in my opinion, is the center of the Christian heart. God, in his sheer love, humility and selflessness, didn’t take on human form to communicate his Love to us–but became a human form, and physically suffered and died in expression of his Love for us.
 
Jonathan, why does the Book of Malachi even mention Elijah returning? An no, it is not the predominant interpretation that John the Baptist wasn’t Elijah. The main issue we have of it’s interpretation–that John is Elijah–is that the Malachi prophecy seems to indicate Elijah’s return before Jesus’s Day of Judgement–and not his first coming. This is probably still the case. But it explicitly does not rule out that Elijah would come back similarly before Jesus’s first advent.

“But I tell you, Elijah has already come, and they did not recognize him…” (Matthew 17)
“Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the coming…” (Malachi 4)

I’m sorry, if John is an essentially different personhood, then by your metric of scripture, the verses concerning the second coming of Jesus could imply an essentially different personhood. And I guess that proves your argument–if I accept it–as to how Jesus could come reborn!!

Lastly, John the Baptist or Elijah was dead before the Transfiguration.
Okay, you still haven’t addressed why John denied being Elijah?

And perhaps another important point - the reason it was believed Elijah would return was precisely because Elijah was not dead. He had been assumed to heaven. However, why then, would he be reincarnated as John the Baptist (who apparently didn’t know he was Elijah) and not just return as Elijah? God likes to confuse people it seems!

As an aside, you should read what the Catechism has to say about reincarnation, par. 1013, namely:
When “the single course of our earthly life” is completed, we shall not return to other earthly lives: “It is appointed for men to die once”. There is no “reincarnation” after death.
 
Moreover Jonathan, by your thread of reasoning the Jesus who was reincarnated was not Jesus–but a different person, just as a theoretical reborn Jesus. After all, the real Jesus died a human death. Do you understand the logic you’re using?
What “Jesus” was reincarnated? Do you mean the resurrection?

I’m not sure how plainer I can make this: the problem with “reincarnation” is that the person who was reincarnated would be a fundamentally different person. The Second Person of the Trinity became incarnate as Jesus: He is now Jesus. If He were to reincarnate Himself, He could not possibly be Jesus because Jesus has a resurrected, glorified physical body; he has a mother named Mary; etc. etc.

Of course Jesus died a human death - but he rose from the dead!
I’d like to point out a very relevant passage concerning the idea of reincarnation in the dialogues of Jesus–apart from the verses concerning John the Baptist as Elijah:

“As he walked along, he saw a man blind from birth. His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” Jesus answered, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned; he was born blind so that God’s works might be revealed in him.” (John 9:1-3) NRSV-CE

Notice that the disciples imply a belief in reincarnation by asking whether the blind man sinned before he was born. Jesus had the opportunity to disabuse of this belief right here and there, but he chose not to. After all, he claimed that John was Elijah.
What? Ummm… I’ve just finished a Bible study on John’s Gospel that I delivered to my parish and consulted about five reputable commentaries. Not one suggests anything like your interpretation! The obvious interpretation is that the disciples are asking whether his blindness is the result of his sinning or that of his parents. The emphasis on “born blind” (literally, in the Greek, “from birth”) is to point out that Jesus in healing this man is beginning a new creation (just like God in Genesis), as you hear the crowds say: No one has ever healed a man born blind!

Again, I’d suggest you consult Church teachings on reincarnation because that belief has never been orthodox.
 
😊🙂
🙂 however,- look at " saw Him" “watched Him” that in Acts 1:11 said our lord will come in the same way as they saw him go into heaven. that as they were watching, he was lifted up, our Lord will come in the same way as they saw him go into heaven. that you can not just see half sentence.

**Acts 1
6 So when they had come together, they asked him, ‘Lord, is this the time when you will restore the kingdom to Israel?’ 7He replied, ‘It is not for you to know the times or periods that the Father has set by his own authority. 8But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.’ 9When he had said this, as they were watching, he was lifted up, and a cloud took him out of their sight. 10While he was going and they were gazing up towards heaven, suddenly two men in white robes stood by them. 11They said, ‘Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking up towards heaven? This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in the same way as you saw him go into heaven.’
**
 
What “Jesus” was reincarnated? Do you mean the resurrection?

I’m not sure how plainer I can make this: the problem with “reincarnation” is that the person who was reincarnated would be a fundamentally different person. The Second Person of the Trinity became incarnate as Jesus: He is now Jesus. If He were to reincarnate Himself, He could not possibly be Jesus because Jesus has a resurrected, glorified physical body; he has a mother named Mary; etc. etc.

Of course Jesus died a human death - but he rose from the dead!

What? Ummm… I’ve just finished a Bible study on John’s Gospel that I delivered to my parish and consulted about five reputable commentaries. Not one suggests anything like your interpretation! The obvious interpretation is that the disciples are asking whether his blindness is the result of his sinning or that of his parents. The emphasis on “born blind” (literally, in the Greek, “from birth”) is to point out that Jesus in healing this man is beginning a new creation (just like God in Genesis), as you hear the crowds say: No one has ever healed a man born blind!

Again, I’d suggest you consult Church teachings on reincarnation because that belief has never been orthodox.
Firstly, excuse my typo. :rolleyes: Yes I obviously meant Resurrection. But I still can’t see how you can define any essential difference between Resurrection and Reincarnation. Jesus was humanly dead. He wasn’t in a trauma-induced coma slowly and inexorably falling victim to the privations of liquid or food in his tomb. He was clinically dead. You have less than 6 minutes after the heart stops beating until irreversible brain death occurs. This mortal, human being named Jesus was absolutely no more for three whole days. And then he was resurrected. Or reincarnated ; ) Whatever word you’d like to choose. After all, he didn’t exist any longer.

I’m certainly not the first one to raise John’s passage in light of the topic of Reincarnation and God. It’s a very well-known interpretation, that of course has its trenchant opinions. I would understand in a parish you may have never come across such a controversial topic–but scripture is scripture. Remember, the literal reading implies the disciple’s belief in Reincarnation. After all, the quote is: ***“Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” NRSV-CE ***
 
Firstly, excuse my typo. :rolleyes: Yes I obviously meant Resurrection. But I still can’t see how you can define any essential difference between Resurrection and Reincarnation. Jesus was humanly dead. He wasn’t in a trauma-induced coma slowly and inexorably falling victim to the privations of liquid or food in his tomb. He was clinically dead. You have less than 6 minutes after the heart stops beating until irreversible brain death occurs. This mortal, human being named Jesus was absolutely no more for three whole days. And then he was resurrected. Or reincarnated ; ) Whatever word you’d like to choose. After all, he didn’t exist any longer.
The distinction between resurrection and reincarnation is what it means to be a human being with a centre of consciousness. Jesus is the divine Word incarnated with a fully divine and fully human nature. There is no problem with Jesus dying and rising from the dead, since this same Jesus: his centre of consciousness, his physical body, his social relationships, etc. would be alive again. However, with reincarnation, all these human elements of Jesus: his centre of consciousness (it would be a new centre of consciousness), his physical body, his social relationships, etc. would be completely different. Consequently, what we know of Jesus’ human nature would no longer exist. Reincarnation means “becoming incarnated again” but resurrection means “rising from the dead”. Jesus’ resurrection was certainly not a re-incarnation - and has never been described as such.

I’d like to know how someone born today with a human nature, and therefore developing an identity based on their present circumstances have the same identity as a past incarnation? If so, you’d have something like a split-personality.
I’m certainly not the first one to raise John’s passage in light of the topic of Reincarnation and God. It’s a very well-known interpretation, that of course has its trenchant opinions. I would understand in a parish you may have never come across such a controversial topic–but scripture is scripture. Remember, the literal reading implies the disciple’s belief in Reincarnation. After all, the quote is: ***“Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” NRSV-CE ***
Oh, is that so? Can you quote me one reputable Catholic scholar, Church Father or Pope who believed this is what was meant, i.e. that Jesus was endorsing the view of reincarnation?
 
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