Acts 15: 1-21

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elmatt

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In Acts 15 we read about the council of Jerusalem in which Paul and Barnabas seek clarification from the Apostles on circumcision and other Jewish laws…and how they pertain to the Gentiles. My question is: Why does James seem to be the acting “Pope” at this council. Scripture tells us that all the Apostles were there. We even read of Peter’s (name removed by moderator)ut on the matter. However, this section ends with James making it clear that he is in the presiding chair at the council. My struggle with this scripture is: if Jesus gave the keys to Peter and he was the 1st Pope; why was he not the presider at this council?
 
Notice the Council is just accepting what St. Peter declares at the beginning. This is exactly how many of the earlier Councils took place, such as Chalcedon and even later ones, such as some of the Lateran Councils and Vatican I.
 
I think you also misunderstand the Pope’s role at an ecumenical council. There’s a maximum amount of things he can do with a council, but only a mimimum cooperation is necessary. Read this article. newadvent.org/cathen/04423f.htm

Scroll down to where it says:

%between%
VI. FACTORS IN THE POPE’S CO-OPERATION WITH THE COUNCIL
 
Hi Elmat,

As bishop of Jerusalem, James must have been presiding.
So it was natural for him to be prominent.

Verbum
 
Thank you everyone. The link to New Advent and the various responses were very helpful.
 
Also notice:

Peter’s words ending up a dogma - Gentiles should not be bound by Mosaic bonds.

James’ words ending up being a discipline - the 4 Noahide stipulations.

I’m not saying that the Pope issues dogmas only and bishops issue disciplines only. But I’m saying that Peter’s words ending up having much more weight and authority than James.

Therefore, the argument that James was the ultimate authority at this council is a straw-man. Being the bishop of Jerusalem, where the council was held, gives him extra weight in the proceedings, but not equal to Peter’s.
 
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