M
MT1926
Guest
OK let me see if I can help straighten out the confusion.This is where I get confused, forgive me, just seeking out all truths and want to understand. Then in all one is saying. So James only did so, to mislead, appease those by which James himself is a member of>>> those who already belonged to the community of the Faithful, through which the Gentles want to enter into the fold of Faith?
May I ask why you believe James is being misleading?
If your school teacher gave you homework in which you had to perform 10 steps to complete a math problem, but when you got it home your dad showed you how he does it in 3 steps, does this mean your teacher misled you? or does it mean your teacher wanted you to do the extra steps to teach you something along side what the main point of the problem was?
If you reread my reply you will notice I only said the “food restrictions” were relaxed.James would accept those who committed Fornication? Idolatry? So the 4 Laws that were given then was to bring about Good, to stop such pagan practices?Sorry your reply confuses me greatly now.
Idolatry is already covered under the first commandment to Love God, as you pointed out is already in scripture.
Fornication is already covered under the second love neighbor.
Neither of these two could be relaxed. And if you think about it, like you said these were already spoken of in the NT. So James really wasn’t making some new law on the Gentiles, these were no brainers. Which is why he used them to appease the Jews.