Acts 15:15-21

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So I’ve been investigating Peter, the Papacy, and the Bible lately and I was looking up passages cited in this Catholic Answers pamphlet. I was hoping that someone could help me out with this one. While I recognize that Peter gives the first dogmatic statement of the church in verses 7-11, how do you look at James’ statement in the following verses, particularly vs. 19:
It is my judgment, therefore, that we should not make it difficult for the Gentiles who are turning to God… (emphasis mine)
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Please don’t beat me over the head with the Magesterium or Tradition - I am still coming (work in progress) to accept these but I am a whole lot closer than I was even 6 months ago - besides I understand (and almost wholly accept) their position. Also, I understand the other passages in favor of Peter’s primacy among the apostles and the testament of the Early Church Fathers. I am not looking for apologetics on the Primacy of Peter (or even the Papacy - I have lots of articles and listening resources on that) - I’m just looking for a way to read this passage in light of the others (and explain it to my Protestant family).

Thanks for your patient and compassionate responses!
 
James was also one of the pillars of the early church,along with John. Peter still needed advice and even correction from others,as when Paul accused him of hypocricy for not eating with the gentiles in Antioch. A Pope,likewise,may ask for and heed the judgement of others he is close with,as Pope John Paul 2 did with Cardinal Ratzinger.
 
DrPiano said:
So I’ve been investigating Peter, the Papacy, and the Bible lately and I was looking up passages cited in this Catholic Answers pamphlet. I was hoping that someone could help me out with this one. While I recognize that Peter gives the first dogmatic statement of the church in verses 7-11, how do you look at James’ statement in the following verses, particularly vs. 19:

Please don’t beat me over the head with the Magesterium or Tradition - I am still coming (work in progress) to accept these but I am a whole lot closer than I was even 6 months ago - besides I understand (and almost wholly accept) their position. Also, I understand the other passages in favor of Peter’s primacy among the apostles and the testament of the Early Church Fathers. I am not looking for apologetics on the Primacy of Peter (or even the Papacy - I have lots of articles and listening resources on that) - I’m just looking for a way to read this passage in light of the others (and explain it to my Protestant family).

Thanks for your patient and compassionate responses!
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Paul is not making a decision when he says that. He is expressing his opinion. In My Judgement is the same as In My Opinion.
 
That makes sense - I was thinking as much but wanted a little clarification.

How (for my wonderful Protestant family) can this be shown to be different than Peter’s statement earlier? Is it that Peter doesn’t use phrases like “in my judgment” (or in my opinion)?

Thanks!
 
27 Therefore we are sending Judas and Silas to confirm by word of mouth what WE are writing. 28 It seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us not to burden you with anything beyond the following requirements: 29 You are to abstain from food sacrificed to idols, from blood, from the meat of strangled animals and from sexual immorality. You will do well to avoid these things. Farewell.
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Maybe it would help you understand better if you read the following verses 27-29. We see that the elders listened to St. James and expressed unity and agreement with his “judgment.” The group sent a letter to confirm what “WE” are writing, which indicates this was more than just James. Further, we see that he attributes the decision making to the help of the Holy Spirit, which is ever present in these deliberations of church councils or elders. – assuming they have invoked His help and guidance.]

I pray this will be helpful to you. 🙂
 
The statement of Peter was doctrinal. Except for the bit about not engaging in fornication, the statement of James was disciplinary, made for pastoral reasons, like the Church law against eating meat on Fridays.
 
As verse 15:1 shows, the dispute centered primarily around whether or not someone needed to be circumcised before they could be saved.
Acts 15:1 But some men came down from Judea and were teaching the brethren, “Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved.”

In the discussion when Paul and Barnabas come to the apostles, Peter reminds all present that through him, the issue had been definitively settled some time before (vs 7-11) when, by God’s order, Peter had baptized the pagan Cornelius and his household - without circumcision being required (Acts 10). So, case closed with regard to circumcision - by Peter’s decision.

After that, James opens discussion among the apostles and elders concerning other rules and how they should be handled. A decision is agreed upon by all of them - including Peter (vs 22 “Then it seemed good to the apostles and elders, …”). If Peter had not concurred with the others, had refused to give his approval, then the decision of the group would not have been doctrinally valid and binding. It is the same procedure that exists during Church councils today.

Nita
 
thistle said:
Paul is not making a decision when he says that. He is expressing his opinion. In My Judgement is the same as In My Opinion.
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I don’t think so, in this case (I think you are talking about James at the council of Jerusalem). that is clear in what follows, that a letter was written containing James’ judgement. James was the Bishop of Jerusalem, and it is fitting that the direction come from him.
DrPiano said:
That makes sense - I was thinking as much but wanted a little clarification.

How (for my wonderful Protestant family) can this be shown to be different than Peter’s statement earlier? Is it that Peter doesn’t use phrases like “in my judgment” (or in my opinion)?

Thanks!
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Paul uses this phrase in his letters.

The most important part of this passage with regard to Peter is that he tells the council “You know that God made choice among you that I should be the one…” to bring the gospel to the Gentiles. Peter had been given the keys to the kingdom, and he used those keys to open the gospel to the Gentiles.
 
Thanks, especially to guanophore and Nita, but really to all of you. You’ve all been really helpful in understanding this passage. I’ll take these interpretations and pray and meditate on them. Are there any “official” interpretations of this passage?

Thanks again!
 
DrPiano said:
That makes sense - I was thinking as much but wanted a little clarification.

How (for my wonderful Protestant family) can this be shown to be different than Peter’s statement earlier? Is it that Peter doesn’t use phrases like “in my judgment” (or in my opinion)?

Thanks!
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Laudatur Iesus Christus.

I am not sure that it will be very forceful as a means of persuasion, however, I think it is fair to say that James’ statement is different because it is concerned with the implementation of Peter’s decision. James is substantiating Peter’s decision and then offering a proposal for the means of giving it administrative effect – namely the sending of a letter with specific provisions.

This is similar to the procedure in Councils of the Church throughout her history.

Pax Christi nobiscum.

John Hiner
 
Another thing to think about…James was the Bishop of Jerusalem. Being a bishop, the faithful in his diocese are under his jurisdiction, and he is responsible for leading him. Most non-Catholics do not realize how little practical influence the pope has in the day to day affairs of the dioceses outside of Rome.

There is very little need for a bishop to consult the pope in the execution of his responsibilities as the leader of a diocese, and the local bishop has a great deal of latitude to make executive decisions regarding the faithful who submit to him.

When a papal decree IS handed down to the other bishops, it is through the bishops that the degree is promulgated. The pope does not (and never has) micromanaged every diocese, and it would only be standard protocol that this come through their bishop James, just as it would come through the local bishop today.
 
DrPiano said:
So I’ve been investigating Peter, the Papacy, and the Bible lately and I was looking up passages cited in this Catholic Answers pamphlet. I was hoping that someone could help me out with this one. While I recognize that Peter gives the first dogmatic statement of the church in verses 7-11, how do you look at James’ statement in the following verses, particularly vs. 19:

Please don’t beat me over the head with the Magesterium or Tradition - I am still coming (work in progress) to accept these but I am a whole lot closer than I was even 6 months ago - besides I understand (and almost wholly accept) their position. Also, I understand the other passages in favor of Peter’s primacy among the apostles and the testament of the Early Church Fathers. I am not looking for apologetics on the Primacy of Peter (or even the Papacy - I have lots of articles and listening resources on that) - I’m just looking for a way to read this passage in light of the others (and explain it to my Protestant family).

Thanks for your patient and compassionate responses!
Click to expand...
Since the Council was in Jerusalem, James would issue the proclamation, however, the proclamation he issued, substantively, was not his, but Peter’s. Peter stood up among them and spoke. James ratified it in agreement with the rest, but the Holy Spirit spoke through Peter.

It also helps not to get hung up on geography. There was no church at Rome, so the seat of the Church was wherever Peter went.
 
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