T
Tolle_Lege
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Here’s another thread that screams, “please pin me to the top of all posts because I’ve only been answered about 400 times before here”
But, be aware “rested” means His creative endeavors were complete, not that He stepped away from Salvation History…for if God ever “rests”, everything falls apart.6 days right? Rested on the 7th?
Whenever the specific Greek word for “day” (yom) is used with a number, along with “evening & morning” in the OT, it always refers to a specific 24 hour day. Moses wrote the entire Torah, including Genesis. So, when he reflects back in Exodus 20:11 about the Creation week, he understood his own writing in Genesis 1 to refer to a literal 24 hour 6 day work week:If God refers to the period of creation as 6 days, whether you think that’s literal or figurative, OBVIOUSLY when they later reference that event they would use the same words. That’s not any kind of proof.
Seriously just asked a priest about this last week and he said they didnt exist. He said the bible was full of metaphors and allegories. Needless to say I won’t be going back to him!The Church teaches that they were two real historical figures who were the first true man and woman, and they both really historically sinned. It allows us to understand a lot of the details in the story as symbols, though.
Yeah… the Bible got everybody’s name right, except Adams.LITERAL! From Pope Pius XII - Humani Generis (Generation of Humans) we find:
""37. *When, however, there is question of another conjectural opinion, namely polygenism, the children of the Church by no means enjoy such liberty. *
*For the faithful cannot embrace that opinion which maintains that either after Adam there existed on this earth true men who did not take their origin through natural generation from him as from the first parent of all, or that Adam represents a certain number of first parents. *
Now it is in no way apparent how such an opinion can be reconciled with that which the sources of revealed truth and the documents of the Teaching Authority of the Church propose with regard to original sin, which proceeds from a sin actually committed by an individual Adam and which, through generation, is passed on to all and is in everyone as his own.""
Also -
to deny Adam as being real would be to deny all direct mentioning of Adam within the NT
as well as Jesus’ Geneaology in Luke… .
When Jesus began his work he was about thirty years old,
the son, as people thought, of Joseph, son of Heli, son of Matthat, son of Levi, son of Melchi, son of Jannai, son of Joseph, son of Mattathiah, son of Amos, son of Nahum, son of Esli, son of Naggai, son of Maath, son of Mattathiah, son of Semein, son of Josech, son of Joda, son of Johanan, son of Rhesa, son of Zerubbabel, son of Shealtiel, son of Neri, son of Melchi, son of Addi, son of Cosam, son of Elmadam, son of Er, son of Joshua, son of Eliezer, son of Jorim, son of Matthat, son of Levi, son of Symeon, son of Judah, son of Joseph, son of Jonam, son of Eliakim, son of Melea, son of Menna, son of Mattatha, son of Nathan, son of David, son of Jesse, son of Obed, son of Boaz, son of Salmon, son of Nahshon, son of Amminadab, Some witnesses add: son of Admin. son of Arni, son of Hezron, son of Perez, son of Judah, son of Jacob, son of Isaac, son of Abraham, son of Terah, son of Nahor, son of Serug, son of Reu, son of Peleg, son of Eber, son of Shelah, son of Cainan, son of Arpachshad, son of Shem, son of Noah, son of Lamech, son of Methuselah, son of Enoch, son of Jared, son of Mahalaleel, son of Cainan, son of Enosh, son of Seth, son of Adam, son of God.
The post I was referring to had mistranslated a Hebrew word as a Greek word. I am referring to the use of words that can be traslated as (for example) the number four, also used originally as an adjective in Biblical Hebrew.I know how 'day" can refer to differing lengths of time…
Give examples of how “ Numbers can be adjectives ” ?
Whenever the specific Greek word for “day” (yom) is used with a number, along with “evening & morning” in the OT, it always refers to a specific 24 hour day.
Your theory is still built on the idea that if someone uses a specific word to mean something many times, that it is impossible for them to use it to mean something else at any point in all of their writings.
Youre acting like Moses is writing a first hand account, saw himself that the days were 24 hours, and wrote Genesis accordingly. Moses was not there for creation. He wrote the Torah based on revelation from God.
Except that the linguistics of the text, along with use of “evening & morning” with the use of a number “first day, second day…” etc does not allow for that personal opinion. Again, when you look at other verses in the Torah (like Exodus) where Moses does the same thing, he uses them to mean a literal 24 period.Its 100% possible God summed it up that way both because otherwise He would have to use numbers so big Moses didnt even have words to describe them. The only other explanation…is that God created the world in six days, but designed it to appear in every single conceivable way to be billions of years old…to deceive us? just for fun?
I don’t know why you find it as “another source of doubt” for God to “deceive us.” Why do you find an Omnipotent God Who bodily rose Jesus from the dead, walked on water, caused a worldwide Flood, separated the Red Sea, but incapable of creating the heavens & the earth in 7 literal 24 days, since that is what the text says, which is supported by the linguistics? And Jesus Himself said the first marriage took place “in the beginning” which is the exact same Greek word in the Septuagint (arche) in Genesis 1:1.to deceive us? just for fun? because we need another source of doubt in the world? It doesnt seem to make sense to me that in this one area God would design the world specifically to make reason and faith incompatible
I am saying it doesnt matter how Moses used the word. Moses thought he was being literal. God, who essentially dictated Genesis to him, was being symbolic, and Moses was unaware of the real meaning. God is by no means always literal in His revelations to man. Sometimes He tells it straight like with Jeremiah or Elijah, sometimes He just shows them what He wants to show them, like Isaiah and John. Why would Moses use the word for day in some different manner than normal if he himself didnt know it was being used symbolically? That argument makes sense if you are taking the position that Moses had full knowledge of what actually happened during creation, and was writing what he knew had happened, which isnt the case. If hes writing a secondhand account (which he is) then this argument has no foundation. The only other way to make it logically sound is if you assert that there is no possible way God was being a little symbolic in relating an event to a human, which we know based on the entire rest of the Bible that He loves to do.My argument was based on the linguistics of the use of the specific word when it’s used with “evening & morning” along with a “number.”
Your theory is still built on the idea that if someone uses a specific word to mean something many times, that it is impossible for them to use it to mean something else at any point in all of their writings.Im not trying to be annoying here, but I really dont see how that is not the argument youre making. This is the same logic used by people like seven day adventists who insist God (outside of Jesus) has a physical body, because His “arm” and “eyes” and “back” are described in the OT. There is no language that has ever existed that has had linguistic laws determining how, or if, specific words could be used to symbolize other things. That entire concept is absurd.when you look at other verses in the Torah (like Exodus) where Moses does the same thing, he uses them to mean a literal 24 period.
I never once said He was incapable, which He obviously isnt. I never said it was a source of doubt for me.Why do you find an Omnipotent God … incapable of creating the heavens & the earth in 7 literal 24 days
The point is I think it is infinitely more likely that God just dumbed down the creation of the cosmos to a level the Hebrews could easily accept without actually being untrue, than that He just on a whim decided to make His 6-day-old universe appear in every way to have existed for billions of years for apparently no reason. Occam’s razor and all that.
That is to say, the construction of creation into days was a way for God to make something ineffable comprehensible to us. The above cited article gives an overview of why St. Augustine came to his interpretation, but, I presume, you would need to read his book De Genesi ad litteram for a full appreciation of his exegetical rigor.In Augustine’s view, God creates all things simultaneously, and the 7-day construct in Genesis 1 is an accommodation in which “the Scriptural style comes down to the level of little ones and adjusts itself to their capacity.”
God, who essentially dictated Genesis to [Moses]
Neither of these assertions is what the Catholic Church means when it describes “inspiration.” In fact, your assertions are precisely the examples that the Church gives when it explains what Scriptural inspiration is not.Moses held the brush, but the Lord wrote Genesis, like with the rest of the Book