hecd2:
And your question is could this be possible considering only the mitochondrial evidence? The answer is yes, the mitochondrial evidence on its own does not preclude the possibility that our matrilineal MRCA is also the only femaleancestor of the current human stock in her generation. However the mitochrondrial evidence does not support that idea either. It neither precludes it nor supports it. It says nothiong about it.
Note that the existence of a matrilineal MRCA does not depend on mitochondrial evidence. That a matrilineal MRCA of all humans currently alive existed is a mathematical certainty. The existence of mitochondrial Eve is not deduced from the mitochondrial evidence as fundamentalists erroneously claim - the concept is a logical consequence of population theory. The only question is how long ago did our matrilineal MRCA live and that is what the empirical evidence is needed for. And the answer is about 175,000 years ago, before the emergence of anatomically modern humans.
Does this help?
Absolutely. Thank you for the very clear explanation. I had figured as much, but wanted to be sure. You have two options based on just the mtDNA from MRCA and you move forward from there. And from the other evidence, we THEN say option 1 is exlcuded and option 2 is supported.
For the record, I want to be clear that you need not defend against the erroneous claims of fundamentalist in Catholic circles. As you are well aware, the church has stated that we are free according to it’s doctrine to accept that evolution is a viable method by which humanity came into existance. The issue of monogenism vs. polygenism is a different subject and has it’s own issues and must be reconciled. But with regard to the age of the human race being 6500 years, and other faulty deductions by the fundamentalist community, in general you shouldn’t need to defend against such for most Catholics.
OK, now if you can bear with me and some probably stupid questions on this, I’d really appreciate it. One sentence that muddles this for me a bit is the last sentence…
‘before the emergence of anatomically modern humans’
…Could you clarify that for me? Was mtDNA MRCA not ‘human’ in the sense we would define that genetically today? What were the main difference? When is it believed that anatomically modern humans did emerge?
Finally, I am going to throw out a hypothetical. Suppose for a minute you WANTED to explain and reconcile monogenism with the evolutionary data? Can you concieve of ANY way in which that would be possible? Again, putting aside the erroneous fundamentalist issues, is it possible that there is a straightforward reconciliation possible?
For instance, I saw in another post where you say that Y Chromosome MRCA dates to about 75,000 years ago. So what if this male ancestor mated with a female descendent of female MRCA (from 175,000 ago)? Could these two be the ‘real’ common parents? The first two with souls? What if there offspring then mated with other ‘soulless’ (not true humans) humans and all of those descendents had souls? and so on. My guess would be that you would answer that if this were so, then by definition the mate of male MRCA should show up as the female MRCA instead of the female from 175,000.
What if male MRCA mated with a sibling? Would that make a difference in how we read the genetic evidence?
You probably want to laugh at such speculation. But please don’t misunderstand that I am actually argueing these position. I am just engaging a bit of wild speculation to better undrestand the issue.