Yes God does apply the law at one point in scripture to Adam alone.
In the Greek (Gensis 3:11), God explicitly says “unless you (singular) ate of the fruit I told ‘you’ (singular) not to eat.”
In Genesis 3:13 God does NOT say “Why did you eat, woman?”
That law didn’t necessarily apply to her – so God never asks.
If the law only would happen if they both equally ate – God ought to have asked, “Why did you eat?”
But God doesn’t ask that. Rather God takes Adam’s claim that she gave him the fruit, and asks her why she did THAT. It’s Only Eve who is confused about eating or not eating herself; God never accuses her of eating nor does he care even after she admits it – God never says word one about the woman eating anything.
eg: Isn’t it OBVIOUS that no bible says “because you [Woman] ate… you will be punished.”
Because that’s all that can be proven from scripture. It’s uncertain in what way it applied to the woman or why. The CCC even says the sin was symbolic, and not a literal account.
I have no idea what you mean by those words.
THere was no mortal sin, so concupiscence is not required yet.
Venial sins do not destroy friendship with God – therefore, if Eve’s sin was venial for any reason – she would not have fallen.
You have a half truth here; sin came into the garden when the devil entered – long before Adam or Eve ate anything. Sin was always present in the world. However, Death, Concupiscence, and the ruptured friendship with God did not happen until Adam.
Eve’s eyes were NOT opened when she ate – her eyes were opened when Adam ate.
God said that Adam was to be Lord over his wife Eve. That’s headship right there.
So, Adam and Eve aren’t part of your world. OK. But, that’s a dream world…
Everyone has people in authority over them. The entire Church is hierarchical.
Unless you’re really a protestant who pretends it isn’t…