Adultry?

  • Thread starter Thread starter J.W.B
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
J

J.W.B

Guest
My friend who is a non-denominational Christian (who also holds a high respect for the Catholic Church because of Her morals) last night told me that Adultry is ONLY sex with ANOTHER man’s wife, and NOT with another woman even if the man is already married. He said in that case it is called “Harlotry” if the woman is not married. Is this true? I have always thought adultry is when one is married but then has sex with another woman, no matter if the woman is married or not. He claims when Christ spoke of “Adultry” on marriage he was obiviously talking about “any man who divorces his wife and marries another (that would already be married) committs adultry.” There was no need to explain what “adultry” was because the Jews already knew: sex with or marrying another man’s wife.

He claims this is WELL within the Old Testament. He also pointed out that King David had a NUMBER of wifes yet the only one that he committed Adultry with was Bethsheba since she belonged to Uriah. He was NOT saying that it’s not sinful if one had sex with another woman if she was not married, it’s just that the sin is “Harlotry” and NOT adultry.

What do you all have to say to this?
 
J.W.B.:
My friend who is a non-denominational Christian (who also holds a high respect for the Catholic Church because of Her morals) last night told me that Adultry is ONLY sex with ANOTHER man’s wife, and NOT with another woman even if the man is already married. He said in that case it is called “Harlotry” if the woman is not married. Is this true? I have always thought adultry is when one is married but then has sex with another woman, no matter if the woman is married or not. He claims when Christ spoke of “Adultry” on marriage he was obiviously talking about “any man who divorces his wife and marries another (that would already be married) committs adultry.” There was no need to explain what “adultry” was because the Jews already knew: sex with or marrying another man’s wife.

He claims this is WELL within the Old Testament. He also pointed out that King David had a NUMBER of wifes yet the only one that he committed Adultry with was Bethsheba since she belonged to Uriah. He was NOT saying that it’s not sinful if one had sex with another woman if she was not married, it’s just that the sin is “Harlotry” and NOT adultry.

What do you all have to say to this?
Click to expand...
That was correct under the Judaic law. Women didn’t have any standing and were not considered individual persons. Christ in the New Testament Gospels changed that view when He speaks of adultery in relation to divorce.
 
Adultery is one of the ten comandments though, so why would it change into something else? My friend claimed that when Christ spoke of “Adultery” everone in those days knew exactly what it was (another words He did not have to explain what adultery was) and so marrying another woman (who is ALREADY married) is adultry and that is what Christ was saying. It seems to make sense because why would Christ make Adultery into something else other than what it was in the law of Moses?
 
Just my take on it, ask him if “Harlotry” is a sin. Sin is sin regardless of the name. Did it carry the same penalty as adultery? Also ask him if it is OK now to have more than one wife as in Mosaic law.
 
adultry is not only done when a married man or women have sex outside that relationship. Adultry is also when a man or women have sex outside a marriage. So when one has premarital sex they are committing adultry.
 
New Advent seems to require marriage of one person in order for it to be called adultery…
New Advent Encyclopedia:
Adultery is defined as carnal connection between a married person and one unmarried, or between a married person and the spouse of another. It is seen to differ from fornication in that it supposes the marriage of one or both of the agents. Nor is it necessary that this marriage be already consummated; it need only be what theologians call matrimonium ratum. Sexual commerce with one engaged to another does not, it is most generally held, constitute adultery. Again, adultery, as the definition declares, is committed in carnal intercourse. Nevertheless immodest actions indulged in between a married person and another not the lawful spouse, while not of the same degree of, guilt, are of the same character of malice as adultery (Sanchez, De Mat., L. IX. Disp. XLVI, n. 17). It must be added, however, that St. Alphonsus Liguori, with most theologians, declares that even between lawful man and wife adultery is committed when their intercourse takes the form of sodomy (S. Liguori L. III, n. 446).
Click to expand...
Alan
 
J.W.B.:
My friend who is a non-denominational Christian (who also holds a high respect for the Catholic Church because of Her morals) last night told me that Adultry is ONLY sex with ANOTHER man’s wife, and NOT with another woman even if the man is already married. He said in that case it is called “Harlotry” if the woman is not married. Is this true? I have always thought adultry is when one is married but then has sex with another woman, no matter if the woman is married or not. He claims when Christ spoke of “Adultry” on marriage he was obiviously talking about “any man who divorces his wife and marries another (that would already be married) committs adultry.” There was no need to explain what “adultry” was because the Jews already knew: sex with or marrying another man’s wife.

He claims this is WELL within the Old Testament. He also pointed out that King David had a NUMBER of wifes yet the only one that he committed Adultry with was Bethsheba since she belonged to Uriah. He was NOT saying that it’s not sinful if one had sex with another woman if she was not married, it’s just that the sin is “Harlotry” and NOT adultry.

What do you all have to say to this?
Click to expand...
Matthew 5:27-28
“But I say to you that everyone who* looks at a woman with lust* has already committed adultery with her in his heart.”

Jesus said it - I BELIEVE it. End of story.

“Ignorance of the Scriptures is ignorance of Christ” - St. Jerome
 
Regardless of whether a man cheats on his wife, or a wife cheats her husband it is still adultery.

Catholics abide by single spouse relationships, so the multiple wives deal does not apply. You get one wife so if you cheat on her, you are committing adultery, who knows what Mormons think.

wc
 
40.png
MonicaC:
adultry is not only done when a married man or women have sex outside that relationship. Adultry is also when a man or women have sex outside a marriage. So when one has premarital sex they are committing adultry.
Click to expand...
Is that true? I thought that was called fornication?
 
Ahh…another chance to recommend Mark Shea’s By What Authority?.

Shea points out that using Bible-alone, one can argue in favor of polygamy. In fact Martin Luther said while he did not approve of it, there was not enough Scriptural support to condemn it. Problem with this is, is that it also applies to the Trinity as anyone who has argued with a neo-Arian has found out. They have Scripture passages that will counter every one of yours.

The turning point for Shea was when he was listening to an evangelical call-in radio show and an Arian was on the line absolutely demolishing the host biblically. Finally, the host blurted out that God is a Trinity because that is what 2000 years of Christian teaching tells us.

And there you have it–all extra-marital sex is adultery because 2000 years of the Word of God in Church Tradition says it is. Once one gets out of the death trap of Sola Scriptura, then real defense of Christ’s teaching can begin.

Scott

.
 
carol marie:
Is that true? I thought that was called fornication?
Click to expand...
You are correct that sex between an unmarried man and an unmarried woman is called fornication. But often people consider it along with adultery because of how people are catechised with the 10 commandments. The sixth one is to not do adultery, but Catholic morality lists lots of other sexual sins under that commandment or category. Fornication is one of them. So, if you have to pick a commandment to say that the fornicator is breaking, you would list the sixth one.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top