R
R_Daneel
Guest
I vehemently disagree. There are three conditions to be met if one wishes to speak of a meaninful “free will”:So apparently you are defining volitional with “could act otherwise” as a necessary condition. This is a mistake. A volitional act need only arise from the will (voluntas); it need not express a choice between two options (arbitrium). (I think this missed distinction is a major source of your confusion in this thread.)
- The locus of causal control (LCC) is residing in the entity.
- The principle of alternate possibilities (PAP).
- The ability to carry out one’s decision (ACD).If any one of these is missing, there is no meaningful “free will”.
You gotta be kidding. If you wish to be happy, just because you are better off than a pauper, or if you wish to be miserable, just because there are others who are better off than you are, be my guest. I will stick to my way of evaluating my own life.…or that might be just you deceiving yourself.
It depends on the specific circumstances.The question is: what are the concrete conditions for valuing that give content to the dependence relation to which you so vaguely point?