A
Areopagite
Guest
Indeed the distinction makes a distinction between two kinds of evils. However, the act is actually sinful, whereas the desire is not. It is nonetheless evil, but not something that damns you unless you give into it. Even if you have an urge to do something immoral, even something lustful and exploitive, it doesn’t constitute actual sin unless you willfully consent.I understand the distinction, but that just splits into two forms of demonization. The overt action is one thing, but the orientation even if resisted, remains an immoral urge, like the temptation to lust or fantasize about another in an exploitive, selfish or covetous way.
Obviously, you would agree that if urges persist, despite having resisted them constantly, it doesn’t follow that the urge is good.
You should start a new thread for this to be addressed (unless there’s one going already).That’s a distinction from the overt act, but doesn’t remove the problem, which is Catholic irrationality on why that orientation or disposition should be so considered in the first place. It appears just to a vestige of ancient barbarisms that got “deified” long ago, and do not have a way to be reformed without serious disgrace for the Church and its traditions.
Well, I feel flustered. I have memories of reading from the APA website saying the complete opposite. But maybe it wasn’t the APA website. In any case, I can’t find it again. So unless there’s some kind of conspiracy, I stand corrected.The evidence contradicts what you say. The Kinsey study in the 1950s, Heston & Shields in the 1960s, and the more recent Bailey & Pillard study (these are the ‘landmark’ ones, other smaller ones fit in with these findings) found statistically dramatic CONCORDANCE between homosexuality orientations in monozygotic twins.
In the Bailey & Pillard study, more than HALF of the monozygotic twin sets had concordant homosexuality. In dizygotic twins (non-identical DNA) the concordance rate was found to be LESS THAN A QUARTER. So not only is it “hardly ever the case”, it’s the case MOST OF THE TIME, when the twins share the same DNA.
Whoever gave you that “info” was seriously confused about the relevant science.
The same studies that show a marked concordance in homosexuality for twins with identical DNA also show that genetics is not likely the only factor, and no one has been advancing the idea that it is the only factor. Rather, that the evidence is strong that it is a significant factor.
In any case, it is nonetheless true that, even if there are a lot of gay twins, there are many instances when just one of them are gay. It shows that it’s not genetic in an absolute sense. Indeed, there could be genetic dispositions especially when accompanied by certain environmental circumstances and whatnot, but it’s not ultimately genetic. Certainly, families can have genetic dispositions toward schizophrenia, but it doesn’t make being schizophrenic part of their “deepest identity” I would say, at least not so deep to think that it’s good for them to be schizophrenic. Maybe you would disagree.