Agreement between Jose and Maria

[ADiosgracias]

The Virgin Mary had made a vow of virginity,She is engaged to Jose and plan to marry . Why they would make this agreement? (this was before the annunciation)
What sense had to marry someone to not have children?
I understand everything that happens after the annunciation, but I do not understand the meaning of the previous arrangement.

 

[DavidFilmer]

The “previous arrangement” that you speak of is not part of Catholic doctrine. The Church does not teach that Mary had made a vow of perpetual virginity (although the Church does not teach otherwise - the Church simply does not teach on the matter at all).

The pious tradition that you refer to comes from the so-called Epistle of James (which was not written by the Apostle James). This is a very ancient and well-regarded text, but it is not doctrinal.

In this text, Joseph is an old man (too old to conceive children). Mary is an avowed virgin. There is no possibility of sexual relations from the onset of the relationship.

Such an idea is quite compatible with Catholic doctrine, but it IS NOT Catholic doctrine. The Church does not teach that Joseph was elderly, or that Mary had made a lifelong vow of virginity.

 

[John_Lazarus]

The “previous arrangement” that you speak of is not part of Catholic doctrine. The Church does not teach that Mary had made a vow of perpetual virginity (although the Church does not teach otherwise - the Church simply does not teach on the matter at all).

The pious tradition that you refer to comes from the so-called Epistle of James (which was not written by the Apostle James). This is a very ancient and well-regarded text, but it is not doctrinal.

The Epistle of James is a canonical (and therefore doctrinal) book of the New Testament.

Are you referring to another book under James’ name, like the Protoevangelium?

 

[ADiosgracias]

The “previous arrangement” that you speak of is not part of Catholic doctrine. The Church does not teach that Mary had made a vow of perpetual virginity (although the Church does not teach otherwise - the Church simply does not teach on the matter at all).

The pious tradition that you refer to comes from the so-called Epistle of James (which was not written by the Apostle James). This is a very ancient and well-regarded text, but it is not doctrinal.

In this text, Joseph is an old man (too old to conceive children). Mary is an avowed virgin. There is no possibility of sexual relations from the onset of the relationship.

Such an idea is quite compatible with Catholic doctrine, but it IS NOT Catholic doctrine. The Church does not teach that Joseph was elderly, or that Mary had made a lifelong vow of virginity.

:whacky:

 

[mikeeh]

The Virgin Mary had made a vow of virginity,She is engaged to Jose and plan to marry . Why they would make this agreement? (this was before the annunciation)
What sense had to marry someone to not have children?
I understand everything that happens after the annunciation, but I do not understand the meaning of the previous arrangement.

Maybe you’re thinking of the betrothal. Back then a man and woman would become betrothed to each other for a year prior to the marriage. It’s greater than an engagement but less than marriage. During this time the woman remained with her parents, but any infidelity would already be considered adultery. It was probably important that Mary become pregnant with Jesus during this time so others would assume Joseph was the father, and that they were already at least betrothed to each other. A woman who couldn’t want to at least be betrothed wouldn’t do well back then.

 

[DavidFilmer]

The Epistle of James is a canonical (and therefore doctrinal) book of the New Testament.

Are you referring to another book under James’ name, like the Protoevangelium?

Yes, of course, you are correct. I refered to the so-called Gospel of James, also called the Protoevangelium. Thanks for the catch.