B
blue_skies_1
Guest
As a Catholic, sometimes I’m asked to defend the Church’s position on AIDS in Africa - people say the usual stuff about the Catholic teaching being dangerous… outdated, superstitious… they say it will cause higher levels of HIV. My defence is usually based on the common sense idea that abstinence and fidelity are the only 100% way to prevent the spread of AIDS, citing the success story of Uganda. But sometimes I’m asked, if that’s the case then why don’t we have a higher rate of HIV in countries like USA and UK, where promiscuity is pretty widespread? We (in the West) generally use condoms). Our HIV rate is far lower than in some parts of Africa where there is this epidemic. I’m confused by this, why is it?
Also, to top it off, i’m not even sure any more that the example of Uganda is all that good - yes, the HIV rate dropped a lot but I have been told - in fact this was written in an article in a British newspaper - that condoms, not the abstinence, were in fact the main tool in lowering the spread of AIDS. It’s so hard to be sure of the truth here. Can someone help?
Also, to top it off, i’m not even sure any more that the example of Uganda is all that good - yes, the HIV rate dropped a lot but I have been told - in fact this was written in an article in a British newspaper - that condoms, not the abstinence, were in fact the main tool in lowering the spread of AIDS. It’s so hard to be sure of the truth here. Can someone help?