This is a valid, and important, observation!
I think that, if we’re discussing Christ’s words as recorded in the Gospels, it’s important to think about the dynamics of
audience in the context of the spoken word.
I mean, if I stand up in front of the general assembly of the U.N. and say “few will gain admission to the Super Bowl”, they’d look at me and shrug and say, “well… yeah; we represent over 7 billion people, and the U.S. Bank Stadium doesn’t hold 70k!” On the other hand, if I stand outside the stadium and claim “few will gain admission!”… then that’s a completely
different kind of statement, wouldn’t you say?
So, the question becomes: what was Christ’s intent when He said this? All of humanity, throughout all of time? Or, perhaps, all of those under the Mosaic covenant? Or maybe just all of those in His audience?
I’m not going to claim an answer here. I’m just setting out a question: if we’re dealing with “few”, in the numerator… what’s the
denominator?
The fact that the traditional teaching of the Church is that few are saved would seem to strongly imply that the majority are in fact culpable, which is why they will not be saved.
Yep, that’s fair. But, if we’re looking at the subset of folks who we might want to claim as invincibly ignorant – which is the set of folks that I believe (name removed by moderator) was talking about – then we can’t necessarily claim that Christ’s words (or even some saint’s words, centuries later, in the transmission of anecdotes he’s heard!)
demonstrate that the invincibly ignorant are few in number.
If there is a persuasive argument that would extend the scope of invincible ignorance beyond the Church’s traditional understanding, then I will be glad to hear it, but if it exists, I have not yet encountered it.
What if the argument isn’t for the
extension of the scope of the invincibly ignorant, but rather,
the contraction of the scope of those who have been baptized…?