Alleged Scriptural Support of Divorce

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Matt.19

9] And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another, commitsadultery."

I had someone use this line on me to justify divorce in the case of adultery. I explained that in Jewish custom, once a man struck a deal with the the father of the bride to marry his daughter, the two were considered husband and wife during their betrothal…which in our modern day is an engagement period. If the wife were to be unchaste during this engagement time, then the contract between the man and the father of the bride would be broken and thus it would be the husband’s prerogative to call off the marriage. This was Joseph’s dilemma with Mary and why he pondered how to divorce her quietly when he discovered she was with child.

Do you think that is a good explanation? Thoughts and ideas are most appreciated. The person I was talking with didn’t seem convinced.
 
Matthew’s Gospel contains Jesus’ statement which occurred well after Joseph’s dilemma. In both cases the option of divorce was available. I think many fail to understand serous implication of casting out your wife (through divorce) during the time of the Old Testament, verses the current conditions. At that time the head of the household was being held responsible for his parents and his wife. It was not common for wives to leave their husbands during that period; it did occur but was rare. Today many wives chose to leave their husband; the Church contends this is equally improper. The rub he is pointing out is the Bible does not require husband to keep his wife under certain conditions(also see Pauline Privilege).
 
He who divorces his wife (except for porneia) and marries another, causes his wife to commit adultery, and he who marries a divorced woman commits adultery—JESUS CHRIST

Does this really permit divorce and remarriage in cases of adultery? No. Let’s examine it.

If the woman commits adultery and the husband divorces her, she is still guilty of the adultery, and so is any man who marries her. That is clear enough.

But note what Jesus said, he said that if the man divorces his INNOCENT wife he causes her to commit adultery if she remarries. Thus, the innocent partner is never free to remarry.
Logically it follows then that the GUILTY partner would not be free to remarry either, so where is the exception to the rule?

Remarriage after divorce is always forbidden.
 
Actually, **porneia **does not refer to unchastity, it refers to a marriage that should not have taken place and was therefore invalid, e.g. the bride and groom were actually brother/sister or first cousins.
 
porneia is not adultry
it has more connotations of “unnatural” than “immoral”
 
Now the rest of the story. Try reading the text in biblical culture,

Leviticus 20:10
" 'If a man commits adultery with another man’s wife—with the wife of his neighbor—both the adulterer and the adulteress must be put to death.

So, Jesus is simply giving a widow or widower permission to marry a second time.

👍
 
calchiquita said:
Actually, **porneia **does not refer to unchastity, it refers to a marriage that should not have taken place and was therefore invalid, e.g. the bride and groom were actually brother/sister or first cousins.
Click to expand...
Yes, and it bothers me that the RSV-CE “wimped out” on this and didn’t use the term “fornication” that the D-R used, since sexual relations with someone with whom you should NOT be joined (brother/sister, first cousinns) is, well, fornication.
 
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