C
CrossofChrist
Guest
I’m not sure I understand Communion for the divorced/remarried. I thought that if subjectively they were innocent (i.e lack full consent or knowledge) then they could receive Communion, even if objectively they were committing adultery. But then I read this which was said by Cardinal Muller:
Whoever lives in a way that contradicts the marital bond opposes the visible sign of the Sacrament of Marriage. With regard to his carnal existence, he turns himself into a “counter-sign” of the indissolubility, even if he is not subjectively guilty. Exactly because his carnal life is in opposition to the sign, he cannot be part of the higher Eucharistic sign – in which the incarnate Love of Christ is manifest – by thus receiving Holy Communion. If the Church were to admit such a person to Holy Communion, she would be then committing that act which Thomas Aquinas calls “a falseness in the sacred sacramental signs.”
And the good Cardinal also said:
Without entering into this question in a deeper way, it is sufficient to point out that this footnote refers in a general way to objective situations of sin, and not to the specific cases of the civilly remarried divorcees. Because this latter situation has its own distinctive characteristics which differentiate it from other situations (bold mine).
So it appears to me that even if the divorced/remarried aren’t subjectively guilty, and are in a situation where they could receive without giving scandal, they still cannot receive Holy Communion because they have yet to go to Confession. Is this correct? Would fornication or masturbation have similar rules, or is this strictly for adulterers?
Whoever lives in a way that contradicts the marital bond opposes the visible sign of the Sacrament of Marriage. With regard to his carnal existence, he turns himself into a “counter-sign” of the indissolubility, even if he is not subjectively guilty. Exactly because his carnal life is in opposition to the sign, he cannot be part of the higher Eucharistic sign – in which the incarnate Love of Christ is manifest – by thus receiving Holy Communion. If the Church were to admit such a person to Holy Communion, she would be then committing that act which Thomas Aquinas calls “a falseness in the sacred sacramental signs.”
And the good Cardinal also said:
Without entering into this question in a deeper way, it is sufficient to point out that this footnote refers in a general way to objective situations of sin, and not to the specific cases of the civilly remarried divorcees. Because this latter situation has its own distinctive characteristics which differentiate it from other situations (bold mine).
So it appears to me that even if the divorced/remarried aren’t subjectively guilty, and are in a situation where they could receive without giving scandal, they still cannot receive Holy Communion because they have yet to go to Confession. Is this correct? Would fornication or masturbation have similar rules, or is this strictly for adulterers?