R
ragincajunjoe
Guest
Okay, I have a question. Here are 2 versions of Genesis 3:15
DR: “I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.”
RSV 2nd Catholic Edition: “I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel.”
Now, there seems to be some ambiguity here … is the Hebrew gender of that pronoun ambiguous?
The Latin Vulgate, like the Douay-Rheims, has the feminine pronoun there.
The Septuagint, like the RSV, has the masculine pronoun.
So why is there dispute over this?
I know that Pius IX in Ineffabilis Deus used the “she” as part of his reasoning to define the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of Mary … but his reasoning is not infallible, it is the dogma that is. Also, I know the Latin Vulgate is free from error in faith and morals … but the “she” vs. “he” is not exactly faith and morals … so what do you guys think?
DR: “I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.”
RSV 2nd Catholic Edition: “I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel.”
Now, there seems to be some ambiguity here … is the Hebrew gender of that pronoun ambiguous?
The Latin Vulgate, like the Douay-Rheims, has the feminine pronoun there.
The Septuagint, like the RSV, has the masculine pronoun.
So why is there dispute over this?
I know that Pius IX in Ineffabilis Deus used the “she” as part of his reasoning to define the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of Mary … but his reasoning is not infallible, it is the dogma that is. Also, I know the Latin Vulgate is free from error in faith and morals … but the “she” vs. “he” is not exactly faith and morals … so what do you guys think?