B
Blue_Horizon
Guest
Some of the irregularly married were allowed by JPII to receive private Communion provided cohabitation was necessary for the stability of the marriage (children’s sake) , the old one irretrievably broken down, the Tribunal was unable to nullify (due to merely technical barriers) land a commitment made to live as brother and sister.
I am convinced that AL, and clarifications from the Pope re the Argentinian Bishops Guidelines, demonstrates that Pope Francis is open to discussing a further exception to the above exception.
I respect others if they hold a contrary view…however this is the assumption behind my question here and I am not looking to have that assumption debated here.
That is, for some of the above with the correct disposition and a reasonable expectation that living as brother and sister would also destabilise the marriage…these may possibly, after case by case discernment, be able to have the sacraments of Penance and then Communion also made available to them.
I am seeking theological discussion as to how this changed practice might be explained by traditional moral philosophy/theology concepts.
Possible bases seem to involve discussions over only venial culpability in sins of grave matter, interpretations of what “firmness of intention to change” actually might consist in if access to confession is required, what qualifies as significant “scandal” if communion were public and whether the traditional principle of double effect re scandal can apply here?
I am convinced that AL, and clarifications from the Pope re the Argentinian Bishops Guidelines, demonstrates that Pope Francis is open to discussing a further exception to the above exception.
I respect others if they hold a contrary view…however this is the assumption behind my question here and I am not looking to have that assumption debated here.
That is, for some of the above with the correct disposition and a reasonable expectation that living as brother and sister would also destabilise the marriage…these may possibly, after case by case discernment, be able to have the sacraments of Penance and then Communion also made available to them.
I am seeking theological discussion as to how this changed practice might be explained by traditional moral philosophy/theology concepts.
Possible bases seem to involve discussions over only venial culpability in sins of grave matter, interpretations of what “firmness of intention to change” actually might consist in if access to confession is required, what qualifies as significant “scandal” if communion were public and whether the traditional principle of double effect re scandal can apply here?