R
Richca
Guest
With regard to the bolded sentence above, firstly, the irregular couple if civilly remarried are not in a lawful marriage. According to God’s law, they are not in a marriage at all. Secondly, in my opinion, having sexual relations in this unlawful union is what is going to destabilize the relationship between the man and woman in this unlawful union, not the lack of it. Having sexual relations outside of one’s lawful spouse is a grave sin, in this case it is the sin of adultery. Sinning which is going against God’s will does not stabilize anything but causes harm in one’s relationship with God and with one’s neighbor. Adultery is an offense against God and neighbor, an offense against the two greatest commandments of the Law, that is, it is an offense against the first and greatest commandment which is to love God with one’s whole heart and soul, and it is a sin against the second greatest commandment, to love thy neighbor as thyself for God’s sake. The sexual relations in this case is not loving your neighbor but sinning against them as well as causing harm to the children if there are any. For every sin has both a personal and social dimension. It causes harm not only in one’s personal relationship to God and it is against the first and greatest commandment, the love of God, for sin is a turning away from God towards the creature, but also every sin causes a social and universal harm to the whole human community and the Mystical Body of Christ and thus every sin goes against the commandment to love thy neighbor as thyself for God’s sake.Some of the irregularly married were allowed by JPII to receive private Communion provided cohabitation was necessary for the stability of the marriage (children’s sake) , the old one irretrievably broken down, the Tribunal was unable to nullify (due to merely technical barriers) land a commitment made to live as brother and sister.
I am convinced that AL, and clarifications from the Pope re the Argentinian Bishops Guidelines, demonstrates that Pope Francis is open to discussing a further exception to the above exception.
I respect others if they hold a contrary view…however this is the assumption behind my question here and I am not looking to have that assumption debated here.
That is, for some of the above with the correct disposition and a reasonable expectation that living as brother and sister would also destabilise the marriage…these may possibly, after case by case discernment, be able to have the sacraments of Penance and then Communion also made available to them.
I am seeking theological discussion as to how this changed practice might be explained by traditional moral philosophy/theology concepts.
Possible bases seem to involve discussions over only venial culpability in sins of grave matter, interpretations of what “firmness of intention to change” actually might consist in if access to confession is required, what qualifies as significant “scandal” if communion were public and whether the traditional principle of double effect re scandal can apply here?
As the CCC#1756 says, “one may not do evil that good may result from it.” This in my opinion is simply common sensical and founded on Holy Scripture. God does not expect us to sin or do that which is against his will and which he hates so that good may come of it. God does not nor can he do any moral evil, he is goodness itself without the slightest taint of evil. And God is the first cause of all the good in the world including the good which comes from mankind. God causes good without doing evil and we are suppose to become like him. Jesus and his Blessed Mother Mary also cause good without doing evil, for they are both without the slightest taint of sin and we are suppose to follow and imitate them. God does not will that we should obey his commandments and disobey his commandments at one and the same time. This is a contradiction and God would be contradicting himself and his own nature which he cannot do.