R
Rau
Guest
Yes, I do know that he also said that, as did Cardinal Schoenborn.It was Pope Francis.
He said it in June.
Yes, I do know that he also said that, as did Cardinal Schoenborn.It was Pope Francis.
He said it in June.
I think you may be failing to distinguish Blue Horizon between the positive precepts of the Law and the negative precepts of the Law. And then you are inappropriately trying to apply what pertains to the negative precepts (prohibitory actions) and the principle or principles involved to the positive precepts which inculcate acts of virtue. The following from St Thomas Aquinas may help to clarify regarding his treatment of fraternal correction:If we understand the Commandments as prohibiting direct personal acts of killings and adultery then arguments of intrinsic evil are irrelevant.
The question simply becomes, how do we know there can never be indirect acts of adultery?
Yes, Jesus also said “Go and sin no more.”I have my Bishop,thank you. And I mean thank you for sharing it really.
And I will keep the peace of mind the Pope has offered and cherish it. I am not worried.
And though I really struggled with Aristotelian-Thomistic, I passed the subjects at the University many years ago,too many… How could I discuss any of it seriously with the Pope no less?.
I am glad Jesus did not allow the woman brought to Him to be stoned. That was the law: Stoning her.And we cannot say Jesus didn t know it. Perhaps one of my favourite passages. I cannot fathom her fear…nor His compassion.
And I cannot help remembering Brother Jay. He used to teach us: because " it is the loving thing to do".
I am sorry Ender, we do not appear to share a common “under the hood” moral theology vocab necessary to go beyond a summary “driver’s manual” approach to this particular topic.I find it beyond ironic that you find ambiguity in simple declarative statements …
Ender
My response is tailored for Ender thanks. He’s a big boy.Indirect adultery is but a speculation. At this point, it appears you no more can see how such can arise than anyone else.
I would disagree with your use of definitions and their applicability in indirect moral acts here…at least for English speakers.On the present matter, you’ve speculated whether there is an indirect “mode” whereby what appears to be adultery is in fact not.
Ah, the dreaded nightmare of all authorities, the fear of the thin edge of the moral laxity wedge. I am sorry but I do not prescribe to this sort of politically correct obfuscation of valid moral theology principles simply due to fear of practical abuse by some.And what worries me about that line of thinking is that it may tend to encourage one to believe that the act ought be “excusable” by circumstances. [NB. PODE does not do that.]
Not in the least. It is not a syllogism.You don’t follow the logic?
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The issue is not Canon 916 (personal requirements for approaching Communion) but Canon 915 (personal requirements for being given Communion).Of course. Many disciplines can come and go with the times, but we are not normally in doubt as to what is discipline and what is doctrine.
Is it your view that who may approach communion is a matter of discipline only?
Again, I hate to speculate too much as I believe all this fuss is premature. However, I can see where one issue might be the knowledge that the first marriage was invalid The other thing that might be considered, remembering that in a population of a billion many different situation will exist, are those who as converts understand and believe, as they were taught that divorce can be granted for infidelity, or that it is a one time sin, or that when Jesus said remarrying is committing adultery, it is a sin that exists in time and not a state of sin. All of these are different teaching in other denominations. It is rare for a convert to fully understand and believe in conscience, or even know all, for years. Usually it is Mary that trips people up, but this too is a puzzler.I can well imagine that the person who attempts to live as brother and sister but fails (even repeatedly) may not be guilty of mortal sin.
The more pointed question pertains to the person who determines that there is *no obligation *to live as brother and sister. Upon what does that conclusion rest? A conscientious belief in the invalidity of the prior marriage? Or something else?
Now arguably, the right to receive communion may perhaps be separable from all these considerations.
Blue - you are playing with words here, and I can’t imagine to what end.…You [Ender] simply do not fully understand how the CCC, at the level of non-state killings, interprets the 5th Commandment as being both intrinsically evil and yet allowing of “exceptions” by reason of indirect moral acts.
While the piece of work ought to be judged on its own merit, it may be interesting to examine the website on which it appears. It sets forth a “Charter of Rights” for Catholics that is, here and there, at odds with Catholic teaching. I noted these on a skim reading of said Charter:Thomas this is an exceedingly interesting find Thankyou.
I now have my summer reading material.
I have never come across such an insight as this before, let alone a systematic one with a an alleged tradition behind it.
I do not see the connection of the above when we are speaking of moral acts that involve the PODE.. But, self defense is a good act; murder is not and neither is adultery. Circumstances or intentions do not make acts that are intrinsically evil or the negative precepts of the law good as St Thomas says “. sinful acts are evil in themselves, and cannot become good, no matter how, or when, or where, they are done…wherefore negative precepts bind always and for all times.” You are trying to justify adultery which is an intrinsically evil act regardless of circumstances and intentions somehow with self defense which is a lawful and good act but which also depends on the right circumstances and the right intention.
My point is that many detractors of AL imply that the adultery of the D&R is always mortal.Doctrine.
Of course. Your point?
From Wikipedia:My point is that many **detractors **of AL imply that the adultery of the D&R is always mortal.
Is this then not dogma (John 8:11)?Yes, Jesus also said "Go and sin
Is this then not doctrine? (John 8:11)Yes, Jesus also said “Go and sin no more.”
If your definition fully accorded with the catechism you would have no need to create one; the ones the church provides would suffice. Although, since no one can know what your definition means, it does make it difficult to refute.I therefore translate the 5th and 6th Commandment to mean “Thou shall not personally directly kill” and likewise with adultery. This does fully accord with the CCC.
If you’re going to introduce your own terms the least you could do is define them. Better yet, just use the ones the church uses.So what this means is that lethal self defence is not in fact an exception to not killing because it is not a direct killing…just as the CCC states. It is an indirect killing.
I’m thinking any explanation that relies on defining killing as not killing is a non-starter. The ban on killing has exceptions:**he same divine law which forbids the killing of a human being allows certain exceptions… *(Augustine)A moral act has three fonts from which we guage it’s sinfulness or not. A licit indirect killing no longer has killing (grave matter) as its object font. The object font is now protecting the wife and kids.
This passage contradicts what you just said above:A licit indirect killing no longer has killing (grave matter) as its object font. The object font is now protecting the wife and kids.The object font is still the act of killing.
Exceptions exist nonetheless.Q. 1276. Under what circumstances may human life be lawfully taken?It is still a killing so far as language and indeed physical acts are concerned, but it is not a killing so far as moral acts or the 5th Commandment is concerned. It is not an exception.
Since I don’t know what a direct killing is I cannot say anything about it.Direct killings are still intrinsically evil as you say.
If the adultery is alleged but not committed there is no sin. If it is committed it is a sin without exception.The question is are some physical acts of alleged adultery able to be validly treated in the same way.
If you believe Francis is teaching that adultery may include acceptable exceptions then you are accusing him of teaching error since that position is repudiated by 2000 years of church doctrine.Pope Francis has already indicated the reality holds pastorally. If this be true then theology must be able to accommodate his apparent exception to the 6th Commandment.
If canon law will not be used in anyway to address any possible exceptions then it can be concluded that it will not involve the Canon law that exists regarding sacraments for those that persevere in manifest grave sin.Not in the least. It is not a syllogism.
In this 1994 letter from the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith it says:Involuntariness seems to be a requisite for allowing a sinner to remain in a situation leading to sin. It was specifically stated in FC 84: “This means, in practice, that when, for serious reasons, such as for example the children’s upbringing, a man and a woman cannot satisfy the obligation to separate”.
I used the term in its common usage. I stand by my words. Many of those, as this forum attests, who find AL problematic also find the Holy Father problematic, and do so without any qualification to do so, so the theological sense is not that far off either.From Wikipedia:
“In Roman Catholic theology, detraction is the sin of revealing another person’s faults to a third person without a valid reason. This differs from the sin of calumny and the civil wrong of defamation, which generally involve false accusations rather than unflattering truths”.
I would ask you use another term to describe those who find AL problematic.