F
fred_conty
Guest
Good luck to you, and I hope you get an understanding Judge, but …The following attempts to be an argument for the illegality of condoms. It seems to me that if the truth of any of its premises relies upon the truth of a notion that cannot be rationally justified, the argument should be rejected. If the premises do not so rely, and are true, then the argument, if valid, should be accepted. In this case, people who argue for the legality of condoms should, it may seem, consider their arguments irrational. That making condoms illegal might be impractical strikes me as an irrelevant reply: concerning matters of natural law, charges of impractically have nothing to do with the law should or shouldn’t be. The pervasiveness of slavery never made it true that slavery should be legal. Even if the impractically argument was considered relevant it would be baseless—how could one ever be so sure? Had someone told people living in Connecticut in 1960 that condoms should be made available for widespread use by 1980, surely this would be considered impractical as well. The argument is as follows:
P1: Intentional acts embodying a contra-life will are intrinsically immoral (contrary to natural law).
P2: The use of contraceptives embodies a contra-life will.
C1: Therefore, the use of contraceptives, as an intentional act, is intrinsically immoral.
P3: Condoms are contraceptives.
C2: Therefore, the use of condoms, as an intentional act, is intrinsically immoral.
P4: State resources should not in any way support products whose usage, as intentional acts, is intrinsically immoral.
P5: If a state makes the usage of a product legal, it supports the product with state resources.
C3: Therefore, the state should make illegal any product whose usage, as an intentional act, is intrinsically immoral.
C4: Therefore, the state should make condoms illegal.