C
CatholicAlbani
Guest
I been having some religious discussions with a good friend of mine both of us are devout to our faith but discussing with him the Trinity he gave me the following objection towards the end of our discussion which really stump me
Here’s his exact words in a text
“”""It’s not that the Father gave the son something that makes him greater than the son. It’s -what- He gave the Son, which was authority over creation, to the point where Jesus said explicitly he can’t do anything without the Father’s Will being behind it.
In Shi’a Islam we call this concept Wilayat Takwineeyah, which has varying degrees, too. This means Authority over the Universe. This means God has granted certain individuals authority over the atoms of the Universe, so that they can do miracles (like multiplying fish and bread, turning water into other substances, etc., raising the dead, healing people’s blind eyes, etc.) This is specified that this isn’t their own power, but the power of God behind this and God is using them as a medium
If Jesus and the Father were consistently and truly always equal with each other, then at no point in time would Jesus have been subjected to the Father’s Authority and power, whether human or not
Especially considering there are no scriptural instances of Jesus having power over the father"""""
End quote can some of you guys help me , I told him I don’t have the answer but I’ll find it
Here’s his exact words in a text
“”""It’s not that the Father gave the son something that makes him greater than the son. It’s -what- He gave the Son, which was authority over creation, to the point where Jesus said explicitly he can’t do anything without the Father’s Will being behind it.
In Shi’a Islam we call this concept Wilayat Takwineeyah, which has varying degrees, too. This means Authority over the Universe. This means God has granted certain individuals authority over the atoms of the Universe, so that they can do miracles (like multiplying fish and bread, turning water into other substances, etc., raising the dead, healing people’s blind eyes, etc.) This is specified that this isn’t their own power, but the power of God behind this and God is using them as a medium
If Jesus and the Father were consistently and truly always equal with each other, then at no point in time would Jesus have been subjected to the Father’s Authority and power, whether human or not
Especially considering there are no scriptural instances of Jesus having power over the father"""""
End quote can some of you guys help me , I told him I don’t have the answer but I’ll find it