My son whose 21 lead me to a discussion forum that posted this question. I would appreciate anyone that can give me an answer or illuminate the question better. This is the question: If God is omnipotent can he create a boulder that is too big to move?
My son is I believe agnostic and any guidance on this site would be most appreciative
to me.
To me the question is asking; Can God cause himself to fail? But I’m not sure thats it either.
I know this is sort of a silly thing, but it’s important to me because my son is asking me for advice and I’d like to lead him into the direction of Truth.
Thanks in advance,
Debbie
There are two broad sorts of answer to this question, an Aristotelian and an Anselmian one.
The Aristotelian one will say that ‘omnipotence’ ranges over all powers, and that for this reason, any task which is a ‘contradiction’ is in reality only a pseudo-task. If “God creating a stone too heavy for Himself to lift” is a contradictory thing, then God does not “lack” anything by failing to be able to do it. Indeed, he is still “omnipotent” in that He literally can do all things.
This is a good response, but there is a response which is a bit more subtle from the Anselmian tradition.
St. Anselm defines God’s omnipotence as
absolute power without defect. Consider what this might mean. There are presumably powers which imply a defect on the part of the actor. For instance, finite knowers only know things in accord with their finite natures-- they undergo change in order to come to know things. God does know all things but God does not know things in the mode of a finite knower. God cannot know in the mode of a finite knower, because to do so would imply an imperfection in His nature (it would imply that He was patient, i.e., that He suffered change). This Anselmian response does not quite say that such things are impossible absolutely, but by defining omnipotence as “power without defect” it quite clearly excludes powers which imply finite limitations. Thus it is quite successful as a defense.
Now, the atheist might object that we are merely rigging the debate by defining things as we wish. R Daneel
in post #13 seems to suggest as much. Aren’t we just jerry-rigging the word to mean what we want?
Well, this unfortunately is a bad objection for the athiest. A priori atheism-- arguments which exclude God’s existence using reason alone, and without reference to truths of sense perception, memory, and so only-- cannot
insist on a definition of omnipotence to use in his argument. Only by insisting on
his definition of omnipotence can he ensure that his argument is sound. But this is simply arbitrary, and so it seems that the atheist simply cannot establish his argument as a demonstration. It is merely an expression of his prejudices (i.e., his prejudice as to what the term ought to mean, arbitrarily).
God bless,
-Rob