R
rosthesinner
Guest
Dear readers,
Blessed All Saints Sunday! (I’m Melkite). Being that I am neither a historian or a theologian, but simply a layman, I have a question regarding something I read in the book ‘The Patriarchate of Antioch throughout History: An Introduction’ by His Grace Archbishop Joseph Tawil. (Memory Eternal).
In the chapter ‘Liturgical Institutions Of The East’, page 26, he states the following: “The liturgies of the Egyptian type, such as that of the Euchologion of Serapion (fourth century) and others present two particularities which are not found in the liturgies of the Syrian type. In the middle of the thanksgiving after the Hagios, the celebrant abruptly addresses a prayer to God on behalf of the Church. This prayer is taken from the Didache. Further, the epiclesis seeks the efficiency not from the Holy Spirit but from the Logos.” (The Son).
Now, I understand that the Father sends the Holy Spirit through the Son, Jesus Christ. Christ promised to send the Holy Spirit all throughout scripture after His Ascension in His Glory.
Where I am lost at is where His Grace states that “the epiclesis seeks the efficacy not from the Holy Spirit but from the Logos”. To my understanding, the Holy Spirit is the one that Consecrates the gifts. How can this be if the Son was emphasized instead?
Perhaps I’m misunderstanding something. Hopefully somebody with more knowledge than I can shed some light on it.
God Bless!
Blessed All Saints Sunday! (I’m Melkite). Being that I am neither a historian or a theologian, but simply a layman, I have a question regarding something I read in the book ‘The Patriarchate of Antioch throughout History: An Introduction’ by His Grace Archbishop Joseph Tawil. (Memory Eternal).
In the chapter ‘Liturgical Institutions Of The East’, page 26, he states the following: “The liturgies of the Egyptian type, such as that of the Euchologion of Serapion (fourth century) and others present two particularities which are not found in the liturgies of the Syrian type. In the middle of the thanksgiving after the Hagios, the celebrant abruptly addresses a prayer to God on behalf of the Church. This prayer is taken from the Didache. Further, the epiclesis seeks the efficiency not from the Holy Spirit but from the Logos.” (The Son).
Now, I understand that the Father sends the Holy Spirit through the Son, Jesus Christ. Christ promised to send the Holy Spirit all throughout scripture after His Ascension in His Glory.
Where I am lost at is where His Grace states that “the epiclesis seeks the efficacy not from the Holy Spirit but from the Logos”. To my understanding, the Holy Spirit is the one that Consecrates the gifts. How can this be if the Son was emphasized instead?
Perhaps I’m misunderstanding something. Hopefully somebody with more knowledge than I can shed some light on it.
God Bless!
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