Ancient Faith Radio: 3/31 #168 - Eastern Catholics - Are They “Orthodox”?

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Kevin Allen on his The Illumined Heart podcast 3/31/2011 # 168 has an good interview with Archimandrite James Babcock, Melkite. I think the host asked the kinds of questions that are right on target and Fr. Babcock provided clear answers. Father has been quite involved with the Society of St. John Chrysostom — Western Region, SSJC where he has plenty of exchange with those Orthodox who are interested in finding ways to meet and work together with Catholics.
 
The filioque is not part of the Eastern (Catholic or Orthodox) creed.
But the TEACHING of filioque - that the Holy Spirit is consubstantial with the Father AND THE SON - is indeed part of the FAITH of every Orthodox Church (both Oriental and Eastern).

Blessings,
Marduk
 
It was interesting listening to this. Something really popped out to me. I am not unfamiliar with Anselmian model of redemption. That being said, as a Roman Catholic of 30+ years, it seems, to me, that the Eastern characterization of the West relying so heavily on that model is a bit heavy-handed. Now, I’m not saying that wasn’t always the case, just that in my lifetime the theology I’ve read and studied seems to have aspects of Anselm’s view, but also aspect’s of the Eastern Views.

In short, it seems to me the modern Roman view seems to include Anselm and many other aspects in a complementary way. In fact, it is a lot of Protestant churches that hold the extreme view of a vengeful God needed a bloody sacrifice. By the way, the theology I’ve read the most of is Scott Hahn. He approaches it from blessing and curses of covenantial theology, but also the Eastern aspects. Just my :twocents:

Thanks and God Bless
Pakesh
 
But the TEACHING of filioque - that the Holy Spirit is consubstantial with the Father AND THE SON - is indeed part of the FAITH of every Orthodox Church (both Oriental and Eastern).

Blessings,
Marduk
mardukm,

The Orthodox Church rejects the filioque and yet believes the unity of three persons, one essence. The Son receives his subsistence from the Father through being begotten, while the Holy Spirit receives his subsistence from the Father through procession.

What you mention is a perceived corollary although not the teaching itself.
 
Umm, excuse me, but last I checked, I was in communion with the Roman Catholic Church, not a branch of it…
 
Dear brother Madaglan,
mardukm,

The Orthodox Church rejects the filioque and yet believes the unity of three persons, one essence. The Son receives his subsistence from the Father through being begotten, while the Holy Spirit receives his subsistence from the Father through procession.

What you mention is a perceived corollary although not the teaching itself.
Yes, I understand what you are saying. The idea of the consubstantiality of the Spirit with the Father and the Son is a corollary of the teaching that on subsistence.

But the teaching on consubstantiality is a teaching that stands on its own. This was the main point of the controversies with the Arians and Pneumatomachi. There is a distinction between the concept of the Father as Arche and sole Origin of the Son and Holy Spirit, on the one hand, and the concept of the consubtantiality of the Persons, on the other. Arians and Pneumatomachi believed in the first, but not in the second - they believed that the Father was arche and sole Origin of the Son and Holy Spirit, but they did NOT believe in the consubstantiality.

Hence, though the teaching on the consubstantiality can indeed be considered a corollary of the teaching on the Arche of the Father, it cannot be considered a mere corollary as if it is not a distinct dogma of the Church that we are all - Orthodox and Catholics (heck, ALL Christians) - bound to believe under pain of heresy.

So I agree that one can say that the Orthodox reject the filioque if one means that it is incompatible with the local theological terminology of the Eastern and Oriental Churches (i.e., it is incompatible with the local theological understanding of the term ekporeusai in the Creed). But is it valid to say that the Orthodox reject the filioque if one means that it rejects the teaching underlying the Latin use of filioque - i.e., the consubstantiality of the Persons? I think not.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Madaglan,
What you mention is a perceived corollary although not the teaching itself.
I just realized something. When you stated this, perhaps you meant that the teaching in the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed in the line “Proceeds from the Father” is that the Spirit has His Origin from the Father alone, and that the teaching on consubstantiality was a corollary that was not the original intent of the Fathers of the Council of Constantinople. Perhaps you are implying that the issue of consubstantiality, though indeed Orthodox, was only later added by the Latins.

I actually wholeheartdly disagree, and I have mentioned this in the past.

The purpose of the Fathers at Constantinople was to address the Pneumatomachi. These were heretics who believed that the Holy Spirit indeed has His subsistence from the Father, but they did not believe that the Holy Spirit was God. The Fathers were fresh from a debate with the Arians who had a similar heresy with respect to the Son.

It is utterly impossible that the Fathers would PRIMARILY intend the phrase “proceeds from the Father” to mean ONLY that the Holy Spirit has His subsistence from the Father because THIS IS ALREADY SOMETHING THAT THE PNEUMATOMACHI READILY AFFIRMED. If they added the clause “proceeds from the Father” to the Nicene Creed with the intent you have in mind, IT WOULD HAVE DONE ABSOLUTELY NOTHING TO REFUTE THE ERRORS OF THE PNEUMATOMACHI. Do you seriously think the Fathers were that negligent of the matter or ignorant of the issues?

THE ONLY THING THAT COULD COMBAT THE PNEUMATOMACHI WAS AN AFFIRMATION OF THE CONSUBSTANTIALITY OF THE HOLY SPIRIT WITH THE FATHER, JUST AS THE MAIN THRUST OF THE DEBATE AGAINST THE ARIANS WAS TO AFFIRM THE CONSUBSTANTIALITY OF THE SON WITH THE FATHER. The only possible conclusion is that the phrase “proceeds from the Father” was added to the Nicene Creed by the Fathers of the Second Ecumenical Council to PRIMARILY affirm the consubstantiality of the Holy Spirit with the Father, NOT the subsistence, which the Pneumatomachi already readily affirmed. I am not ashamed to say that the Latin Church had the meaning of the Creed right all along.

This throws a whole new light on the whole debate. It is impossible for me to believe that not a single person from the Eastern or Oriental Church of any import had ever noticed that many Latins (though not indeed in Rome) had already begun using filioque in the Creed prior to the local debate in the seventh century of which St. Maximos was a part (the fact that that episode itself only had local import is very telling of the matter). I can see that if everyone understood that the phrase “proceeds from the Father” refers to the consubstantiality instead of the subsistence, then Easterns or Orientals who heard the Latins using filioque wouldn’t have batted an eyelid upon noticing it.

It was only later that Easterns began to understand that “proceeds from the Father” primarily refers to the subsistence, instead of the consubstantiality, the latter being the ORIGINAL intent of the Fathers at Constantinople. And that is where we are at now.

I would point out that prior to the 20th century, filioque was not an issue between the Coptic and Catholic Churches. As I mentioned in another thread, there was actually intercommunion between the Copts and Catholics in Egypt for about 100 years in the 17th - 18th centuries. Even today, the main focus of the issue of filioque between the Oriental and Catholic Churches is its canonical addition, not its theological import (though one can certainly find examples of Orientals who approach it from a theological standpoint, though I believe that is only a symptom of undue influence of the EO on OO in modern ecumenical ventures).

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Ignatius;7720359:
Little Boy Lost:
End the filioque!
The filioque is not part of the Eastern (Catholic or Orthodox) creed.

But the TEACHING of filioque - that the Holy Spirit is consubstantial with the Father AND THE SON - is indeed part of the FAITH of every Orthodox Church (both Oriental and Eastern).
Amen, my brother, As well as of the Latin Rite. But the issue addressed in my post in response to LBL’s post to ‘End the filioque’ which is completely different than the consubstantiality of all of the persons of The Most Holy Trinity.
 
Dear brother Madaglan,

I just realized something. When you stated this, perhaps you meant that the teaching in the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed in the line “Proceeds from the Father” is that the Spirit has His Origin from the Father alone, and that the teaching on consubstantiality was a corollary that was not the original intent of the Fathers of the Council of Constantinople. Perhaps you are implying that the issue of consubstantiality, though indeed Orthodox, was only later added by the Latins.

I actually wholeheartdly disagree, and I have mentioned this in the past.

The purpose of the Fathers at Constantinople was to address the Pneumatomachi. These were heretics who believed that the Holy Spirit indeed has His subsistence from the Father, but they did not believe that the Holy Spirit was God. The Fathers were fresh from a debate with the Arians who had a similar heresy with respect to the Son.



It was only later that Easterns began to understand that “proceeds from the Father” primarily refers to the subsistence, instead of the consubstantiality, the latter being the ORIGINAL intent of the Fathers at Constantinople. And that is where we are at now.



Blessings,
Marduk
As the Creed stands, the full divinity of the Holy Spirit is affirmed by the names Lord and Giver of Life, and by stating that He is worshiped with the Father and the Son. This is the approach, as I recall, of St. Basil in On the Holy Spirit, who emphasizes uses in Scripture (e.g. calling the HS Lord) that indicate His divinity and consubstantiality with the Father and the Son.

If the meaning of ekporousis were not the origin of subsistence but rather consubstantiality, then there would be little issue in adding the Greek equivalent of “and the Son” to the Creed. Yet, it is the case that both Orthodox and Catholics agree that to add “and to the Son” to the Greek version of the Creed would render a heterodox statement, and so even Rome omits the filioque from the Greek version of the Creed. Certainly, the Orthodox use of “proceeds from the Father”, understood in relation with other Orthodox beliefs, affirms the consubstantiality of the Holy Spirit, but by virtue of the belief that what eternally proceeds and is eternally begotten of God the Father is fully divine, consubstantial with the Father.

Do you take the stance that Rome does not insert “and the Son” to the Greek version of the Creed because of political considerations and not due to any theological concern of asserting double procession? The defense here of the Latin *filioque, *as I’ve seen it, has been based on the claim that the verb procedit has different denotations than the Greek, and does not denote origination, as does the Greek. What I’ve seen you write suggests something different–that ekporousis does not denote origination.

As to your claim of the changing Greek interpretation of the procession, when did the East suddenly change and understand ekporousis differently? St. Maximus the Confessor, when he wrote of the Latin filioque of his time, stated that the Latins do not believe the Son to be origin of the Holy Spirit–his statement indicating that not after the schism, but long before, the East understood ekporousis to mean origination of the Holy Spirit.
 
  • “and the Son” not “and to the Son” in my last post.
Looking back at St. Maximus, he writes that the Latins do not believe the Son to be cause of the Holy Spirit. I used the word origin.
 
Dear brother Madaglan,
As the Creed stands, the full divinity of the Holy Spirit is affirmed by the names Lord and Giver of Life, and by stating that He is worshiped with the Father and the Son. This is the approach, as I recall, of St. Basil in On the Holy Spirit, who emphasizes uses in Scripture (e.g. calling the HS Lord) that indicate His divinity and consubstantiality with the Father and the Son.
Worship did not settle the issue. Both Arians and Pneumatomachi had no problem worshipping the Son and Holy Spirit, respectively, despite their belief that they were “less than” the Father. To use your example, St. Basil’s argument was not that the Pneumatomachi were denying that the Holy Spirit is called “Lord.” In his work “On the Holy Spirit,” Basil specifically admits that the the Pneumatomachi and the Orthodox Catholic Church shared “common conceptions concerning the Holy Spirit gathered by us from the Scriptures.” St. Basil’s apologetic against the Pneumatomachi was basically a series of argumenta ad absurdum - i.e., if you believe this much, then it is inconsistent for you to deny the divinity of the Holy Spirit.

There is much more for me to say in response to your very intelligent post. But I have no time right now. For now, I will just clarify one thing. You wrote:
As to your claim of the changing Greek interpretation of the procession, when did the East suddenly change and understand ekporousis differently?
Forgive me if I was unclear. I never claimed, nor intended to claim, that the East “suddenly changed” its understanding. If you will notice, I mitigated my statements with the adverb “primarily.” I am not claiming that ekporeusis does not inherently connote the idea of origination. What I am claiming is that ekporeusis inherently ALSO connotes the idea of consubstantiality, and it was this latter meaning that the Fathers of Constantinople PRIMARILY intended when adding “proceeds from the Father” to the Nicene Creed to combat the Pneumatomachi. I am not claiming that the Easterns changed the meaning of the term ekporeusai, but simply that there was a change in emphasis on the connotations inherent in the term ekporeusai.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
mardukm,

The Orthodox Church rejects the filioque and yet believes the unity of three persons, one essence. The Son receives his subsistence from the Father through being begotten, while the Holy Spirit receives his subsistence from the Father through procession.

What you mention is a perceived corollary although not the teaching itself.
Well said! The Eastern Orthodox rightly reject anything that would make the Son - with the Father - a cause of the hypostasis of the Holy Spirit.
 
I would add the Definition of Faith of the Fourth Ecumenical Council of Chalcedon, which affirmed the purpose of the Second Ecum Council thus:

And on account of them that contend against the Holy Ghost, it confirms the doctrine afterwards delivered concerning THE SUBSTANCE OF THE SPIRIT by the One Hundred and Fifty Holy Fathers who assembled in the imperial City.

Let’s move on to the Fifth Ecumenical Council:
If anyone shall not confess that the nature or essence of the Father, of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost is one, as also the force and the power; if anyone does not confess a consubstantial Trinity,m one Godhead to be worshipped in three subsistences or Persons; let him be anathema.

There is no mention, by the way, in the Fifth Ecum, of the Father being the Arche of the Trinity - obviously, because that has never been in contention, not even by the heretics. It was never an issue that needed to be defined dogmatically.

To repeat, the Fathers of Constantinople added the phrase “proceeds from the Father” to the Nicene Creed with the ORIGINAL intention of utilizing the connotation of consubstantiality (instead of origination), since the connotation of origination would have done nothing to refute the heresy of the Pneumatomachi.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
If the meaning of ekporousis were not the origin of subsistence but rather consubstantiality, then there would be little issue in adding the Greek equivalent of “and the Son” to the Creed. Yet, it is the case that both Orthodox and Catholics agree that to add “and to the Son” to the Greek version of the Creed would render a heterodox statement, and so even Rome omits the filioque from the Greek version of the Creed. Certainly, the Orthodox use of “proceeds from the Father”, understood in relation with other Orthodox beliefs, affirms the consubstantiality of the Holy Spirit, but by virtue of the belief that what eternally proceeds and is eternally begotten of God the Father is fully divine, consubstantial with the Father.
I would disagree. It may seem obvious to us now since it is ingrained in our psyche, but in the early Church, a belief that the Son was “eternally begotten,” did not automatically connote consubstantiality. That was why there was such a big debate about the addition of the word homoousios to the Creed. The same with the Holy Spirit. Asserting the origin of the Holy Spirit from the Father was not equivalent to asserting their consubstantiality. If what you claim is true, how can you explain the exigencies of the Pneumatomachian heresy?
Do you take the stance that Rome does not insert “and the Son” to the Greek version of the Creed because of political considerations and not due to any theological concern of asserting double procession?
The latter, and that is only because by the second millenium, the Easterns had fully developed an understanding that the line “proceeds from the Father” refers primarily to the origin of the Holy Spirit, different from (but not opposed to) the original intent of the Fathers of Constantinople that the line instead refers to the consubstantiality.
The defense here of the Latin *filioque, *as I’ve seen it, has been based on the claim that the verb procedit has different denotations than the Greek, and does not denote origination, as does the Greek. What I’ve seen you write suggests something different–that ekporousis does not denote origination.
I addressed this previously, but it may be useful to repeat my statements. The term ekporeusis connotes both the concept of origination and the concept of consubstantiality. But the Fathers of Constantinople intended to use the term according to its connotation of consubstantiality (as affirmed by the quotes I gave from subsequent Ecumenical Councils in my previous posts) in order to combat the Pneumatomachi.
St. Maximus the Confessor, when he wrote of the Latin filioque of his time, stated that the Latins do not believe the Son to be origin of the Holy Spirit–his statement indicating that not after the schism, but long before, the East understood ekporousis to mean origination of the Holy Spirit.
I think you’re imposing an unmerited presupposition here. The debate in which St. Maximos was involved was a very localized debate between some Greek monks and some Latin monks. It did not go beyond that. There is no justification to assume that the interpretation given by the Greek monks (that the line “proceeds from the Father” was understood to refer to the origination and not the consubstantiality) was the general disposition of “the East.” My statement is proven not only by the fact that St. Maximos did not insist that the Latins stop reciting filioque, but also by the quotes I gave from the Ecumenical Councils. Pay particular attention to the quote from the Seventh Ecumenical Council, which occurred after the localized debate in which St. Maximos was involved.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
  • “and the Son” not “and to the Son” in my last post.
Looking back at St. Maximus, he writes that the Latins do not believe the Son to be cause of the Holy Spirit. I used the word origin.
And there would not have been a difference, at that time. But I think we can all admit that the West underwent a development in thinking at the turn of the millenium, that we normally call “scholasticism.” Following Aristotle, the West could conceive of levels of “cause.” Though Florence indeed uses the term “cause” in reference to the Son, it explicitly affirmed and distinguished that only the Father is the Source of the Trinity. This distinction may have been lost on some of the Greeks at Florence, particularly Mark of Ephesus.

Bottom line - the East experienced a development of thought on the matter; the West also experienced a development of thought on the matter. Both these developments are fully Orthodox and do not contradict the ancient Faith of the Fathers.

Our job is to discover that common ground of ancient Faith.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Madaglan,
Madaglan;7749240:
Whenever it was that the Easterns changed the emphasis of ekporeusis
from consubstantiality to origination, it must have been after the Seventh Ecumenical Council.

Here is an excerpt from Session 4 of the Seventh Ecumenical Council, which concerns the Profession of Faith:

We believe in one God the Father Almighty, maker of all things visibile and invisible…


in the Holy Ghost, the Lord the Giver of Life, CONSUBSTANTIAL AND COETERNAL WITH THE SAME FATHER AND WITH THE SON…


It can’t get any clearer than that, brother. To repeat, the Fathers of Constantinople added the phrase “proceeds from the Father” to the Nicene Creed with the ORIGINAL intention of utilizing the connotation of consubstantiality (instead of origination), since the connotation of origination would have done nothing to refute the heresy of the Pneumatomachi.

I will address your other points as time permits.

Blessings,
Marduk
Your understanding of the meaning of the Niceno-Constantinopolitan creed is contrary to the Byzantine doctrinal tradition. The creed primarily concerns the persons of the Trinity, which is clear from the tri-fold structure of the creed itself,. Now in the case of the Son and the Spirit it also concerns their origin from the Father as the sole cause, principle, and source of divinity. Secondarily, and dependently upon the affirmed origin of the Son and Spirit from the Father alone, the creed also asserts explicitly in the case of the Son, and implicitly in the case of the Holy Spirit, that those two persons are consubstantial (homoousios) with the Father, who is the sole font of divinity.

Communion between the Roman Church and the Orthodox East will never be restored as long as Western Catholics, and some misguided Eastern Catholics, continue to promote the filioque within the Niceno-Constantinopolitan creed.

On the points at issue, I - as a Melkite Catholic - completely agree with Madaglan, and I reject Mardukm’s views as erroneous.
 
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