Dear brother Madaglan,
What you mention is a perceived corollary although not the teaching itself.
I just realized something. When you stated this, perhaps you meant that the teaching in the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed in the line “Proceeds from the Father” is that the Spirit has His Origin from the Father alone, and that the teaching on consubstantiality was a corollary that was not the original intent of the Fathers of the Council of Constantinople. Perhaps you are implying that the issue of consubstantiality, though indeed Orthodox, was only later added by the Latins.
I actually wholeheartdly disagree, and I have mentioned this in the past.
The purpose of the Fathers at Constantinople was to address the Pneumatomachi. These were heretics who believed that the Holy Spirit indeed has His subsistence from the Father, but they did not believe that the Holy Spirit was God. The Fathers were fresh from a debate with the Arians who had a similar heresy with respect to the Son.
It is
utterly impossible that the Fathers would PRIMARILY intend the phrase “
proceeds from the Father” to mean ONLY that the Holy Spirit has His subsistence from the Father because THIS IS ALREADY SOMETHING THAT THE PNEUMATOMACHI READILY AFFIRMED. If they added the clause “
proceeds from the Father” to the Nicene Creed with the intent you have in mind, IT WOULD HAVE DONE ABSOLUTELY NOTHING TO REFUTE THE ERRORS OF THE PNEUMATOMACHI. Do you seriously think the Fathers were that negligent of the matter or ignorant of the issues?
THE ONLY THING THAT COULD COMBAT THE PNEUMATOMACHI WAS AN AFFIRMATION OF THE CONSUBSTANTIALITY OF THE HOLY SPIRIT WITH THE FATHER, JUST AS THE MAIN THRUST OF THE DEBATE AGAINST THE ARIANS WAS TO AFFIRM THE CONSUBSTANTIALITY OF THE SON WITH THE FATHER. The only possible conclusion is that the phrase “
proceeds from the Father” was added to the Nicene Creed by the Fathers of the Second Ecumenical Council to PRIMARILY affirm the consubstantiality of the Holy Spirit with the Father,
NOT the subsistence, which the Pneumatomachi already readily affirmed.
I am not ashamed to say that the Latin Church had the meaning of the Creed right all along.
This throws a whole new light on the whole debate. It is impossible for me to believe that not a single person from the Eastern or Oriental Church of any import had ever noticed that many Latins (though not indeed in Rome) had already begun using
filioque in the Creed prior to the
local debate in the seventh century of which St. Maximos was a part (the fact that that episode itself only had local import is very telling of the matter). I can see that if everyone understood that the phrase “
proceeds from the Father” refers to the consubstantiality instead of the subsistence, then Easterns or Orientals who heard the Latins using
filioque wouldn’t have batted an eyelid upon noticing it.
It was only later that Easterns began to understand that “
proceeds from the Father” primarily refers to the subsistence, instead of the consubstantiality, the latter being the ORIGINAL intent of the Fathers at Constantinople. And that is where we are at now.
I would point out that prior to the 20th century,
filioque was not an issue between the Coptic and Catholic Churches. As I mentioned in another thread, there was actually intercommunion between the Copts and Catholics in Egypt for about 100 years in the 17th - 18th centuries. Even today, the main focus of the issue of
filioque between the Oriental and Catholic Churches is its canonical addition, not its theological import (though one can certainly find examples of Orientals who approach it from a theological standpoint, though I believe that is only a symptom of undue influence of the EO on OO in modern ecumenical ventures).
Blessings,
Marduk