Ancient Translations of Luke 1:28

[Canto]

The Aramaic translates the Greek word Kecharitomene as full of grace.
The Latin Vulgate is full of grace too.

Does anyone know what other ancient translations translate this word as?
I am particularly interested in the the Arabic and Vetus Latina (Old Latin)?

Thanks.

 

[irenaeuslyons]

LaPide says that “full of grace” is in the vulgate, arabic, as well as the syriac, ethiopian, egyptian, and persian. He does not mention the vetus latina, although the Stuttgart version has gratia plena as well. I think the Stuttgart is an academic version which attempts to recreate the vetus latina. Someone more knowledgeable can chime in on that to correct or affirm.

 

[COPLAND_3]

The codex Bezae has habe benedicta, bad translation from the Greek.

 

[COPLAND_3]

By the way, habe benedicta means “you having been blessed”.

 

[QNDNNDQDCE]

COPLAND3, how would that work out grammatically? “Habe” is the imperative of “habeo,” which means “to have.” I’m no Latin expert, but it would be a very unusual construction. A guess on my part is that “habe” might just be an alternate spelling of “ave.” H is a weak letter in Latin which was likely not pronounced by whoever wrote the Codex Bezae, and B and V are both similar letters. Compare to modern Spanish in which B and V are pronounced identically.

 

[COPLAND_3]

Gramatically it appears to match the Greek well, but benedicta is obviously the wrong word, which is blessed instead of graced.

 

[COPLAND_3]

COPLAND3, how would that work out grammatically? “Habe” is the imperative of “habeo,” which means “to have.” I’m no Latin expert, but it would be a very unusual construction. A guess on my part is that “habe” might just be an alternate spelling of “ave.” H is a weak letter in Latin which was likely not pronounced by whoever wrote the Codex Bezae, and B and V are both similar letters. Compare to modern Spanish in which B and V are pronounced identically.

As for habe, you are correct, that’s just an ancient form of have or ave.