F
frankielogue
Guest
Hey guys,
So I know that Anglican Orders are invalid, because of the changes made in the Edwardine Ordinal of 1552, that changed the nature of the priesthood. I agree with such.
What did puzzle me was a point made by Timothy Dufort, writing in The Tablet in 1982, which was that, by 1969, all Anglican bishops had acquired apostolic succession fully recognised by Rome, since from the 1930s Old Catholic bishops (whose orders Rome recognises as valid) have acted as co-consecrators in the ordination of Anglican bishops. Would I be correct in thinking the fundamental understanding of the priesthood has still changed, and so the intention is invalid? What do you guys think?
So I know that Anglican Orders are invalid, because of the changes made in the Edwardine Ordinal of 1552, that changed the nature of the priesthood. I agree with such.
What did puzzle me was a point made by Timothy Dufort, writing in The Tablet in 1982, which was that, by 1969, all Anglican bishops had acquired apostolic succession fully recognised by Rome, since from the 1930s Old Catholic bishops (whose orders Rome recognises as valid) have acted as co-consecrators in the ordination of Anglican bishops. Would I be correct in thinking the fundamental understanding of the priesthood has still changed, and so the intention is invalid? What do you guys think?